nadia8999
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in QF, every dirac delta function is accompanied by 2\pi,i.e.(2\pi)\delta(p-p_0) or (2\pi)^3\delta(\vec{p}-\vec{p_0})
the intergral element in QF is \int\frac{d^3p}{(2\pi)^3}\frac{1}{2E_P}, it comes from the integral element \int\frac{d^4p}{(2\pi)^4}(2\pi)\delta(p^2-m^2),I want to know why there is 2\piin the second equation. Is it a convention? Is so where does the 2\picomes from originally.
the intergral element in QF is \int\frac{d^3p}{(2\pi)^3}\frac{1}{2E_P}, it comes from the integral element \int\frac{d^4p}{(2\pi)^4}(2\pi)\delta(p^2-m^2),I want to know why there is 2\piin the second equation. Is it a convention? Is so where does the 2\picomes from originally.