gaus12777
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Could you tell me the reason that if pole is close to the imaginary axis, (1) can be same as (2).
Why this approximation is correct?
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Could you tell me the reason that if pole is close to the imaginary axis, (1) can be same as (2).
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The fact that the roots of (1) are close to the imaginary axis tells you (from the real part of the quadratic equation) that 2ζpωp is small. Ignoring that part of (1) gives (2).