Why write 1+2+...+k+(k+1) instead of 1+2+...+(k+1) in induction

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Homework Statement

Prove that for all integers [tex]n \geq 1[/tex], one has

[tex]1 + 2 + ... + n = \frac{n(n+1)}{2}[/tex]

(1) S(1) = 1, true

(2) Let n = k + 1

[tex]1 + 2 + ... + k + (k + 1) = \frac{(k+`1)(k + 2)}{2}[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



Why is the last series

[tex]1 + 2 + ... + k + (k +1)[/tex] instead of [tex]1 + 2 +...+ (k + 1)[/tex]?
 
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Because the (k+1)th term to each side of the equation, which happens to be 'k+1'. The right side simplifies to (k+1)(k+2)/2
 
flyingpig said:

Homework Statement




Prove that for all integers [tex]n \geq 1[/tex], one has

[tex]1 + 2 + ... + n = \frac{n(n+1)}{2}[/tex]

(1) S(1) = 1, true

(2) Let n = k + 1
You're skipping a step here, again. There are three things you have to establish in an induction proof:
1) Base case (typically for n = 1)
2) The induction hypothesis - you assume that the statement is true for n = k
3) The induction step (I think that's what it's called) - you use the statement for n = k to show that the statement is also true for n = k + 1.
flyingpig said:
[tex]1 + 2 + ... + k + (k + 1) = \frac{(k+`1)(k + 2)}{2}[/tex]





The Attempt at a Solution



Why is the last series

[tex]1 + 2 + ... + k + (k +1)[/tex] instead of [tex]1 + 2 +...+ (k + 1)[/tex]?

These two are exactly the same. Each one represents the sum of the integers from 1 through k + 1. The first expression explicitly shows k, and the other one doesn't, but we can infer that the second expression doesn't skip from k - 1 to k + 1 in the sum.
 
If your professor is a stickler, or if he/she isn't convinced that you know what it should be, it is.

In an induction proof, you should ALWAYS write down your induction hypothesis.