Working with Piecewise Functions

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SUMMARY

The piecewise function defined as $f(x) = x$ for $x \in \mathbb{Q}$ and $f(x) = 1 - x$ for $x \notin \mathbb{Q}$ is continuous only at the point $x = \frac{1}{2}$. To prove continuity, one must show that for any sequence converging to a point $x$, the function values also converge to $f(x)$. Specifically, sequences of rational numbers converge to $x$ yielding $f(y_n) \to x$, while sequences of irrational numbers converge to $1 - x$. The bijective nature of the function does not imply $f(x) = f^{-1}(x)$ is relevant for continuity analysis.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of piecewise functions
  • Knowledge of continuity definitions in real analysis
  • Familiarity with sequences and limits
  • Basic concepts of rational and irrational numbers
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of continuity in piecewise functions
  • Learn about sequences and their convergence in real analysis
  • Explore the implications of bijective functions in mathematical proofs
  • Investigate the behavior of functions at points of discontinuity
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, particularly those studying real analysis, educators teaching continuity concepts, and anyone interested in the properties of piecewise functions.

Enzipino
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I'm given the following Piecewise function when $f:[0,1]\to[0,1]$:
$f(x) = x$ when $x\in\Bbb{Q}$
$f(x) = 1-x$ when $x\notin\Bbb{Q}$

I need to prove that $f$ is continuous only at the point $x=\frac{1}{2}$.

For this problem, I know I need to use the fact that a function $f$ is continuous at a point $x$ iff for every sequence ${{x}_{n}}$ that converges to a number $x$ as $n\to\infty$ we also have the sequence $f({x}_{n})$ converging to $f(x)$ as $n\to\infty$. So, my initial approach to this was to first assume that $x\ne\frac{1}{2}$. And then I let $x\in\Bbb{Q}$ and I choose a sequence of irrational numbers ${x}_{n}$ that converges to $x$ as $n\to\infty$. But then from here I don't know how to work with the functions of the sequences. Do I have the right idea for this?

I also wanted to know that if I could simply just say that $f(x)= f^{-1}(x)$ once I prove that the function is bijective? (This is a separate problem but involves using the same piecewise function.
 
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Hi,

I don't think the fact that $f(x)=f^{-1}(x)$ is helpful there, but it's correct.

For the first part, notice that given a point $x\in [0,1]$ you can choose a sequence of rational numbers $(y_{n})$ converging to $x$ and you will get a sequence $(f(y_{n}))$ converging to $x$ and you can also choose a sequence of irrational ones $(z_{n})$ and you will get a sequence $(f(z_{n}))$ converging to $1-x$.
 

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