First off let me state that I'm just a mechanical engineering student, so I'm not too savvy when it comes to quantum physics, but my teacher was talking about this equation in class and it reminded me about infinite wavelengths near the egde of the universe and the event horizon on a black hole.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

The equation my teacher mentioned.

A=±F/√[(1-Ω^{2}/w_{n}^{2})^{2}+[(cw_{n}/k)(Ω/w_{n})]^{2}]

Which basically states without dampening a particle will approach its natural frequency giving it an infinite amplitude.

Take this into consideration with gravitational redshift, you have a downhill region (inside blackhole), an uphill region (outside of blackhole), and a region at the top of the hill (event horizon).

Redshift relates to z=(observed wavelength-wavelength at emmision)/(wavelength at emmision)

So if you can get the wavelength at emission equal to zero, you can get an infinite redshift.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gravitational_redshift

My understanding is a particle with an infinite wavelength would have no oscillation. If all particles in this region have no oscillation there would be no dampening. If there's no dampening, the particles would approach an infinite amplitude. But if this is true, wouldn't it violate the conservation of energy?

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# Would a particle at the edge of the universe have an infinite amplitude

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