Proving x<y x^n<y^n if n is Odd

  • Thread starter Thread starter Ronnin
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the inequality x PREREQUISITES

  • Understanding of mathematical induction
  • Familiarity with the Trichotomy Law
  • Basic knowledge of inequalities
  • Experience with algebraic manipulation and factoring techniques
NEXT STEPS
  • Study mathematical induction techniques in depth
  • Read "An Introduction to Inequalities" by Bellman
  • Explore the Trichotomy Law and its applications
  • Practice algebraic manipulation involving odd powers
USEFUL FOR

Students learning mathematical proofs, particularly those studying real analysis or algebra, as well as educators seeking to enhance their teaching of inequalities and proof techniques.

Ronnin
Messages
168
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement



x<y x^{n}<y^{n} if n is odd

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I am trying to prove this. I understand that if n were even it would eliminate any negatives for negative values of x or y, but how would I go about writing the proof for this. Would I break it down into different cases? Could I define what odd number is and just somehow state that because of that there would not be a possible sign change for x or y. I'm new to proofs so translating some of the most ovious stuff into mathmatical terms is tricky for me at times.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I would break it to pieces. Consider 0<x<y, x<0<y and x<y<0.

Alternatively, you could also proceed by induction, if you know this technique...
 
Have not started using induction yet. I am still muddling along with these basic direct proofs. Thanks for the suggestion.
 
This problem has been giving me hell. I have used 2k+1 for n and have tried to factor it out giving this (x^{k}x^{1/2}+y^{k}x^{1/2})(x^{k}x^{1/2}-y^{k}x^{1/2}) which is just one big circle because this only yeilds a \sqrt{x^{n}}= \sqrt{y^{n}}. I have even tried using the difference of cubes to attempt to factor this out with no luck. Could someone drop a hint as to whether I'm way off beat here or I'm missing a logical detail that would let me make some kind of algebraic magic happen. Thanks!
 
You could maybe start by proving: If x and y are positive and x<y, then xn<yn.
You can do this by induction.
This would show the result for positive numbers. If one of the numbers is negative, then you could perhaps use the equality (-x)n=-xn if n is odd...
 
Since this is from Spivak chapter 1 I don't think I can use induction. I'm new to proofs and have never used that technique.
 
Honestly if you study the chapter deeply enough you'll see that the way to prove this
example is given to you. One thing I was really really confused about with Spivak in
this chapter was his explanation of the Trichotomy Law, P10, & didn't really get it
until I read "An Introduction to Inequalities" by Bellman. I would seriously advise reading
that little book to learn how to deal with some of the proofs in chapter 1 of Spivak first but if
you can't do that then yeah the material is contained in the chapter & the trichotomy
axiom is a big hint as are the responses in this thread :wink:
 

Similar threads

Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
20
Views
4K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K