mpitluk
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For any set S, the natural numbers N and function f, if f : S → N is injective but not surjective, is S finite?
The discussion centers on the properties of injective and surjective functions in relation to finite and infinite sets. Specifically, it examines whether a set S, when mapped injectively to the natural numbers N but not surjectively, can be finite. Participants clarify that the set of odd natural numbers can be injected into N without being surjective, demonstrating that S can indeed be infinite. The conclusion drawn is that if every mapping f from S to N is not surjective, S is not necessarily finite, as exemplified by the set of real numbers.
PREREQUISITESMathematicians, students of mathematics, and anyone interested in the foundational concepts of set theory and function properties.
mpitluk said:For any set S, the natural numbers N and function f, if f : S → N is injective but not surjective, is S finite?
mpitluk said:Sorry, I'm not sure what that tells me. I have VERY little mathematics training, but ended up taking a math-logic course heavy on notation and dependent on higher-math knowledge.
It seems to me what you are saying, though I am probably dead wrong, is that the set of odd naturals is in a bijection with the naturals. And thus, they have the same cardinality. But, I'm asking about a case in which S is not surjective.
mpitluk said:Wow. I see where I went wrong. What I meant to ask, while trying to get the notation down, was: if you have a set A that doesn't have a bijection with a set S such that |S| = |N|, then is A finite? It seems to me it would be (by definition, really).
I was referring to the following definition: for a set S and the set of naturals N, if |S| < |N|, then is S finite. I see where I went wrong. I am just trying to define a finite set using the terms "bijection," "surjection," and "injection."DonAntonio said:And "by definition" of what?
DonAntonio
DonAntonio said:No. S could be, say the set of all real numbers, which cannot mapped bijectively with the naturals...
DonAntonio
mpitluk said:I was referring to the following definition: for a set S and the set of naturals N, if |S| < |N|, then is S finite. I see where I went wrong. I am just trying to define a finite set using the terms "bijection," "surjection," and "injection."
Might this be right: if for every mapping f between S and N, f : S → N is not surjective, then S is finite.
DonAntonio said:I guess that could work, but why do you seem to enjoy making things messy? Go to the following definition:
"A set S is finite iff EVERY proper subset of S has a cardinality strictly smaller than that of S".
Voila
DonAntonio