View Full Version : Dirac Lagrangian not invariant under rotations?
pellman
Jun24-06, 03:31 PM
First, I need to be able to do equations in my post but it has been a long time since I posted here. Someone please point me to a resource that gives the how-to.
If you make a infinitesimal rotation of the free-field Lagrangian for the Dirac equation, you get an extra term because the Dirac gamma matrices and the rotation generator do not commute. I'll show you when I can. So what do we make of this?
There is more to the question, and I know it has something to do with the Pauli-Lubanski pseudovector operator. Anything you can tell me about the Pauli-Lubanski pseudovector would also be appreciated.
Todd
Perturbation
Jun24-06, 03:47 PM
The solution is to use the full rotation, rather than the infinitesimal one, which isn't a full rotation.
\mathcal{L}=\bar{\psi}\left(i\gamma^{\mu}\partial_ {\mu}-m\right)\psi
\psi\rightarrow\Lambda_{\frac{1}{2}}\psi (Ignoring the transformation of the coordinate dependence of the Dirac spinor)
\bar{\psi}\rightarrow\psi^{\dagger}\Lambda_{\frac{ 1}{2}}^{\dagger}\gamma^0=\bar{\psi}\Lambda_{\frac{ 1}{2}}^{-1}
\mathcal{L}\rightarrow\bar{\psi}\Lambda_{\frac{1}{ 2}}^{-1}\left(i\gamma^{\mu '}\Lambda^{\mu}_{\mu '}\partial_{\mu}-m\right)\Lambda_{\frac{1}{2}}\psi
Which is exactly the same as the original Lagrangian density because
\Lambda_{\frac{1}{2}}^{-1}\gamma^{\mu '}\Lambda_{\frac{1}{2}}=\Lambda^{\mu '}_{\nu}\gamma^{\nu}
pellman
Jun24-06, 07:17 PM
Thanks, Perturbation. I'll get back as soon as I can figure out doing equations with LaTeX.
pellman
Jun25-06, 01:34 AM
I'll go ahead and be verbose. At least I get to have fun with the LaTeX. Maybe someone here can explain where I am going wrong.
The Lagrangian I am using is
\mathcal{L}=\frac{i}{2}\bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}(\par tial_{\mu}\psi)-\frac{i}{2}(\partial_{\mu}\bar{\psi})\gamma^{\mu}\ psi-m\bar{\psi}\psi
so that it is symmetric with respect to psi and psi-bar. Just seemed to sit well with me.
In the particular representation in which the gamma matrices take the form
\gamma^{0}=\left(\begin{array}{cc}0&1\\1&0\end{array}\right)
\gamma^{j}=\left(\begin{array}{cc}0&-\sigma_{j}\\\sigma_{j}&0\end{array}\right)
a rotation of the four-spinor around the z-axis is given by
\psi\rightarrow\left(\begin{array}{cc}e^{\frac{i}{ 2}\sigma_{z}\theta}&0\\0&e^{\frac{i}{2}\sigma_{z}\theta}\end{array}\right)\ psi.
For infinitesimal rotations this is
\psi\rightarrow\left[1+\frac{i}{2}\left(\begin{array}{cc}\sigma_{z}&0\\0&\sigma_{z}\end{array}\right)\theta\right]\psi.
or
\delta\psi=\frac{i}{2}\tau_{z}\theta\psi
where
\tau_{z}=\left(\begin{array}{cc}\sigma_{z}&0\\0&\sigma_{z}\end{array}\right).
The conjugate is
\delta\bar{\psi}=-\frac{i}{2}\theta\bar{\psi}\tau_{z}.
Here we go.
\delta\mathcal{L}=\frac{i}{2}\delta\bar{\psi}\gamm a^{\mu}(\partial_{\mu}\psi)+\frac{i}{2}\bar{\psi}\ gamma^{\mu}(\partial_{\mu}\delta\psi)-\frac{i}{2}(\partial_{\mu}\delta\bar{\psi})\gamma^ {\mu}\psi-\frac{i}{2}(\partial_{\mu}\bar{\psi})\gamma^{\mu}\ delta\psi-m\delta\bar{\psi}\psi-m\bar{\psi}\delta\psi
=\frac{1}{4}\theta\bar{\psi}\tau_{z}\gamma^{\mu}(\ partial_{\mu}\psi)-\frac{1}{4}\theta\bar{\psi}\gamma^{\mu}\tau_{z}(\p artial_{\mu}\psi)-\frac{1}{4}\theta(\partial_{\mu}\bar{\psi})\tau_{z }\gamma^{\mu}\psi+\frac{1}{4}(\partial_{\mu}\bar{\ psi})\gamma^{\mu}\tau_{z}\theta\psi+0
\delta\mathcal{L}=\frac{1}{4}\theta\bar{\psi}[\tau_{z},\gamma^{\mu}](\partial_{\mu}\psi)-\frac{1}{4}\theta(\partial_{\mu}\bar{\psi})[\tau_{z},\gamma^{\mu}]\psi
and [\tau_{z},\gamma^{\mu}]\neq0
pellman
Jun25-06, 02:51 PM
Also, I ignored "the transformation of the coordinate dependence of the Dirac spinor" above just as Perturbation did in his post. The result of the coordinate part of the transformation results in a term in the transformed Lagrangian which is the expected scalar transformation. The remaining \delta\mathcal{L} in my calculation above should vanish if \mathcal{L} is a scalar under rotations.
Looking at Perturbation's post, apparently I have neglected the effect of the rotation on the gamma matrices. I'll have to think on that for a while.
Todd
Timbuqtu
Jun25-06, 05:28 PM
The gamma matrices don't change, you just defined what they are. But what happens with \partial_\mu under a Lorentz transformation?
pellman
Jun26-06, 01:40 PM
Thanks. I have to spend some more time thinking about rotations. The question of this thread came out trying to understand spin as discussed in my next thread: What is spin? (http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=124702)
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