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Feb16-12, 02:13 AM
P: 283
What does the author mean here when he says

However, a massive particle has a specific chirality. A massive left-chiral particle may have either left- or right-helicity depending on your reference frame relative to the particle. In all reference frames the particle will still be left-chiral, no matter what helicity it is.
How does a massive particle have a specific chirality? I learned that the only massive single chiral fields are the ones with Majorana mass. Dirac fields are a mix of left-chiral and right chiral fields, they do not have a specific chirality.

Is the author thus alluding to Majorana spinors here?

Or, which massive fields do have specific chirality?

And what do people mean when they say chirality is a Lorentz invariant concept, though it mixes in the Dirac spinors?


EDIT: And yes, both Dirac and Majorana spinors break chiral symmetry! Again, how can you say that massive spinors have specific chirality?
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