Proofs for 1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\frac{1}{4^2}+\ldots=\frac{\pi^2}{6}

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The forum discussion focuses on the proof of the series sum 1 + 1/2² + 1/3² + 1/4² + ... = π²/6, known as the Basel problem. Participants mention various methods for proving this identity, including Euler's approach using Fourier series and the expansion of the sine function. Additionally, they discuss Fibonacci number identities and their proofs, emphasizing the need for non-inductive methods. The conversation highlights the interconnectedness of series, Fibonacci numbers, and mathematical proofs.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier series and their applications
  • Familiarity with the Riemann Zeta Function, specifically ζ(2)
  • Knowledge of Fibonacci numbers and their properties
  • Basic concepts of mathematical induction and alternative proof techniques
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  • Research Euler's proof of the Basel problem using Fourier series
  • Explore the properties of the Riemann Zeta Function, particularly ζ(2)
  • Study alternative proof techniques for Fibonacci identities without induction
  • Investigate geometric series and their applications in summing series
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Mathematicians, educators, and students interested in advanced calculus, number theory, and mathematical proofs, particularly those focusing on series and Fibonacci numbers.

murshid_islam
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can anyone help me with the proofs:

[tex]1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\frac{1}{4^2}+\ldots=\frac{\pi^2}{6}[/tex]

if [tex]F_i[/tex] is the ith Fibonacci number, then

[tex]F_1+F_2+F_3+\ldots+F_n=F_{n+2}-1[/tex]

[tex]F_2+F_4+F_6+\ldots+F_{2n}=F_{2n+1}-1[/tex]

[tex]F_1+F_3+F_5+\ldots+F_{2n-1}=F_{2n}[/tex]

[tex]F_1^2+F_2^2+F_3^2+\ldots+F_n^2=F_nF_{n+1}[/tex]

I proved the last four using induction. But how can i prove them without using induction?
 
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murshid_islam said:
can anyone help me with the proofs:

[tex]1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\frac{1}{4^2}+\ldots=\frac{\pi^2}{6}[/tex]

if [tex]F_i[/tex] is the ith Fibonacci number, then

[tex]F_1+F_2+F_3+\ldots+F_n=F_{n+2}-1[/tex]

[tex]F_2+F_4+F_6+\ldots+F_{2n}=F_{2n+1}-1[/tex]

[tex]F_1+F_3+F_5+\ldots+F_{2n-1}=F_{2n}[/tex]

[tex]F_1^2+F_2^2+F_3^2+\ldots+F_n^2=F_nF_{n+1}[/tex]

I proved the last four using induction. But how can i prove them without using induction?
euler found your sum zeta(2) by writing
sin(x)=x(1-x^2/(k pi)^2)(1-x^4/(k pi)^4)(1-x^6/(k pi)^6)...
and expanding the product and setting it equal x-x^3/3!+x^5/5!+...
It is often done as a routine exercise with Fourier series.
There are many ways to prove it.
see
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/RiemannZetaFunctionZeta2.html
for the other 4 what's wrong with induction?
Fn=(a^n-b^n)/(a-b)
where a=.5(1+sqrt(5)) b=.5(1-sqrt(5))
so you could express those sums as geometric series among other methods
see
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/FibonacciNumber.html
 
lurflurf said:
for the other 4 what's wrong with induction?

there's nothing wrong with induction. but i wanted get the right hand sides from the left hand sides (from scratch), if you know what i mean.

anyway, thanks very much for the help. and additional information is always welcome.
 

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