Why Do These Derivatives Appear Unequal?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the derivatives of the vector field F(x,y) = (-y/(x^2+y^2), x/(x^2+y^2)). It is established that the partial derivative ∂F₁/∂y is equal to ∂F₂/∂x for all points except at the origin (0,0). This conclusion is derived from the application of multivariable calculus principles, specifically focusing on the behavior of derivatives in the context of vector fields.

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Icebreaker
"Let [tex]F(x,y)=( -y/(x^2+y^2),x/(x^2+y^2))[/tex]

(a)Show that [tex]\frac{\partial F_1}{\partial y}=\frac{\partial F_2}{\partial x}[/tex] except at the origin."

Is it me or are they not actually equal?
 
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Nevermind.
 

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