Recent content by c++guru

That solution on the back makes no sense linguistically. Here is my thinking: In the worst case scenario the bowl would be turning around the center of the circle it is a half of. Since the left most point on the bowl goes up by 10cm the right most point must go down 10cm, and this is exactly...

So I've been trying to do some physics puzzles and I've come across this in a book called "200 puzzling physics problems." The solution in the back makes no sense to me and I can't seem to figure it out by myself. Can anyone help me?

I end up with this How in the world do I do this integral?

Say I have a scalar field which decays into to a fermion - anti fermion pair which then interact in a closed loop to produce two photons. How would I evaluate this? Can I just follow the loop backwards from any of the two photon vertices and just write vertex factor, propogator, vertex factor...

Then $$\epsilon_{\mu}^{*}\epsilon^{\mu *}$$ evaluates to 0? The makes sense, the probability should be zero, since the spins must be opposite. So I guess it evaluates to -1 if the spins are different? If I make the other $$\epsilon_{\mu}^{*} = (0,1,-i,0)^{\mu}/\sqrt{2} $$ Then...

But -k is unit less. Am I wrong to thing that the two epsilons go to -1 if the spins are the same and 0 otherwise? Or is the -1 in units of energy?

I'm trying to calculate the amplitude for an interaction between a scalar field $$\phi$$ and two identical spin 1 fields $$A_{\mu} \quad and \quad A^{\mu}$$ for the interaction $$\phi \longrightarrow A^{\mu} A_{\mu}$$ with the Lagrangian density $$L_{int} = -ik\phi A^{\mu} A_{\mu}$$ where k is a...

Can a W+ boson couple to a W- boson? Say, if a Higgs decays into a W+ and a W-, what would be the Lagrangian density for this interaction? How would you evaluate such a first order diagram?

Of Course I believe the amplitude simply evaluates to $$ k\overline{U}^{(s)}V^{(s)}$$ where U is the spinor of the Beta and V is the spinor of the anti Beta, just from simply accounting for the spinors and the vertex factor.

Could you please give me an explicit expression? I'm not sure mine is correct.

If I have a scalar field $$\alpha$$ and a Dirac particle $$\beta$$ and its anti particle $$\overline{\beta}$$ such that the three couple to give a vertex factor of $$-ik$$ when evaluating the Feynman diagram (where k is an arbitrary constant). How do I evaluate the first order diagram of...