Evaluating $$\alpha \longrightarrow \beta + \overline{\beta}$$ Feynman Diagram

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on evaluating the Feynman diagram for the process $$\alpha \longrightarrow \beta + \overline{\beta}$$ involving a scalar field $$\alpha$$ and a Dirac particle $$\beta$$ with its antiparticle $$\overline{\beta}$$. The vertex factor is established as $$-ik$$, leading to the Lagrangian density expression $$-k \bar\beta \beta \alpha$$. The amplitude for this process is correctly evaluated as $$k\overline{U}^{(s)}V^{(s)}$$, where $$U$$ and $$V$$ represent the spinors for the particles involved.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Feynman diagrams and vertex factors
  • Knowledge of Dirac spinors and their properties
  • Familiarity with Lagrangian density in quantum field theory
  • Basic concepts of particle-antiparticle interactions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of vertex factors in quantum field theory
  • Learn about the role of spinors in particle interactions
  • Explore the implications of scalar fields in particle physics
  • Investigate the process of calculating amplitudes in Feynman diagrams
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for physics students, particularly those studying quantum field theory, as well as researchers and educators looking to deepen their understanding of particle interactions and Feynman diagram evaluations.

c++guru
Messages
11
Reaction score
0
If I have a scalar field $$\alpha$$ and a Dirac particle $$\beta$$ and its anti particle $$\overline{\beta}$$ such that the three couple to give a vertex factor of $$-ik$$ when evaluating the Feynman diagram (where k is an arbitrary constant).
How do I evaluate the first order diagram of $$\alpha \longrightarrow \beta + \overline{\beta}$$
 
Physics news on Phys.org
With that vertex factor, I assume you have something like ##-k \bar\beta \beta \alpha## in the Lagrangian density. It should be a simple matter of writing down the vertex factor and adding spinors for the outgoing fermions.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: c++guru
Orodruin said:
in the Lagrangian density. It should be a simple matter of writing down the vertex factor and adding spinors for the outgoing fermions.
Could you please give me an explicit expression? I'm not sure mine is correct.
 
Since this is a homework-like question, it will be in more accordance with forum guidelines if you first show your attempt including your reasoning. I (or someone else) can then help you to iron out any misunderstandings or misconceptions.
 
Orodruin said:
Since this is a homework-like question, it will be in more accordance with forum guidelines if you first show your attempt including your reasoning. I (or someone else) can then help you to iron out any misunderstandings or misconceptions.

Of Course

I believe the amplitude simply evaluates to

$$ k\overline{U}^{(s)}V^{(s)}$$

where U is the spinor of the Beta and V is the spinor of the anti Beta, just from simply accounting for the spinors and the vertex factor.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
4K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K