Assuming that a Planck length is the smallest unit of distance, I propose this:
Assume there was a circle of radius r and had an area of A. If I would increase this circle's area by 1 Planck length^2, would the radius change? The radius would theoretically change by less than a Planck...
Since you are pushing down on the mop, the normal force would increase. Remember that the normal force is not defined as the force of gravity. In this case, it would be the sum of the gravitational force and the force that you are pushing downward on the mop with. (keyword:downward; you are...
After looking at the problem more, I can see that the masses will cancel, so that is why the mass is given in terms of m.
I do not know how you got to this. It looks like you multiplied by gravity twice in that one part.
The first thing you need to do is to see if the force being applied...
Since there is no way to calculate the mass with the given numbers, the answer would be in terms of m. There is nothing really confusing about it. Some problems just want the answers in terms of a variable or multiple variables. This happens to be one of those problems.
Assuming that this is a horizontal surface that the object is traveling across, I believe the equation you are looking for is F=ma. With a few extra calculations using acceleration, you should get a position at t=3.
You would not put both the forces of gravity into the equation along with T2. This is because T2 is already the force of gravity on the lower bucket, so adding it in again will be wrong.
If the buckets are not accelerating, then the equation would be T1=T2 +mg. T1 is the sum of the...
You should be able to easily use the Work-Energy Theorem for this problem:
\Sigma W=\Delta KE
You know the change in kinetic energy, and you know the distance that the force is applied over.
What have you thought to do? I would suggest thinking about the properties of even/odd numbers.
Also, I believe this is in the wrong section. It should be in math, not physics.
I had already stated this in my first post.
Actually, if F>f then the object will have a constant acceleration. If after the object has begun to move that F=f then the velocity will be constant.
Make sense?
If the force applied to accelerate the desk is constant, then the velocity would not be constant.
Yes, any force greater than the force calculated will cause an acceleration.
If a force that has the same magnitude as the maximum frictional force is applied to the desk, then F_{net}=0. This means that any force applied that is greater will accelerate the object, ie move it.
Thank you for the link. Yeah, the video showed that the coefficient of friction is independent of mass not the force as we already know.
If the answer to this problem is provided, see if it has m within the answer. If it does, then you are set. If it doesn't, well, all I can say is that we...