Bloch's theorem and diagonalization of translation operator

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The discussion centers on the application of Bloch's theorem to the Schrödinger equation with a periodic potential, V(x). The user has grasped the theorem's fundamentals but is grappling with the implications of linear independence of solutions and the conditions under which these solutions can be expressed in a specific form. They highlight a potential issue regarding the non-diagonalizability of a certain matrix, questioning whether the condition B + A^2/4 = 0 could arise. The conversation emphasizes the complexity of the Schrödinger equation and the dependence of solutions on the potential, noting that not all energies E yield solutions. The user seeks clarification on proving Bloch's theorem under these circumstances.
jostpuur
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I'm now interested in a Schrödinger's equation

<br /> \Big(-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\partial_x^2 + V(x)\Big)\psi(x) = E\psi(x)<br />

where V does not contain infinities, and satisfies V(x+R)=V(x) with some R. I have almost already understood the Bloch's theorem! But I still have some little problems left. I shall first describe what I already know, and then what's the problem.

If a wave function satisfies a relation \psi(x+R)=A\psi(x) with some A, when it follows that \psi(x)=e^{Cx}u(x) with some C and u(x), so that u(x+R)=u(x). This can be proven by setting

<br /> u(x) = e^{-\frac{\log(A)}{R}x} \psi(x)<br />

and checking that this u(x) is periodic.

By basic theory of DEs, there exists two linearly independent solutions \psi_1,\psi_2 to the Schrödinger's equation, and all other solutions can be written as a linear combination of these. (This is done with fixed energy E.) Now the real task is to show, that \psi_1,\psi_2 can be chosen to be of form e^{C_1x}u_1(x) and e^{C_2x}u_2(x).

Suppose that at least other one of \psi_1,\psi_2 is not of this form, and denote it simply with \psi. Now \psi(x) and \psi(x+R) are linearly independent solutions to the Schrödinger's equation, so there exists constants A,B so that

<br /> \psi(x+2R) = A\psi(x+R) + B\psi(x).<br />

Consider then the following linear combinations.

<br /> \left(\begin{array}{c}<br /> \phi_1(x) \\ \phi_2(x) \\<br /> \end{array}\right)<br /> = \left(\begin{array}{cc}<br /> D_{11} &amp; D_{12} \\<br /> D_{21} &amp; D_{22} \\<br /> \end{array}\right)<br /> \left(\begin{array}{c}<br /> \psi(x) \\ \psi(x+R) \\<br /> \end{array}\right)<br />

Direct calculations give

<br /> \left(\begin{array}{c}<br /> \phi_1(x + R) \\ \phi_2(x + R) \\<br /> \end{array}\right)<br /> = \left(\begin{array}{cc}<br /> D_{11} &amp; D_{12} \\<br /> D_{21} &amp; D_{22} \\<br /> \end{array}\right)<br /> \left(\begin{array}{cc}<br /> 0 &amp; 1 \\<br /> B &amp; A \\<br /> \end{array}\right)<br /> \left(\begin{array}{c}<br /> \psi(x) \\ \psi(x+R) \\<br /> \end{array}\right)<br />

and

<br /> \left|\begin{array}{cc}<br /> -\lambda &amp; 1 \\<br /> B &amp; A - \lambda \\<br /> \end{array}\right| = 0<br /> \quad\quad\implies\quad\quad<br /> \lambda = \frac{A}{2}\pm \sqrt{B + \frac{A^2}{4}}<br />

This means, that if B + \frac{A^2}{4}\neq 0, then we can choose \boldsymbol{D} so that

<br /> \boldsymbol{D} \left(\begin{array}{cc}<br /> 0 &amp; 1 \\<br /> B &amp; A \\<br /> \end{array}\right)<br /> = \left(\begin{array}{cc}<br /> \lambda_1 &amp; 0 \\<br /> 0 &amp; \lambda_2 \\<br /> \end{array}\right) \boldsymbol{D}<br />

and then we obtain two linearly independent solutions \phi_1,\phi_2 which satisfy \phi_k(x+R)=\lambda_k\phi_k(x), k=1,2.

Only thing that still bothers me, is that I see no reason why B + \frac{A^2}{4} = 0 could not happen. The matrix

<br /> \left(\begin{array}{cc}<br /> 0 &amp; 1 \\<br /> -\frac{A^2}{4} &amp; A \\<br /> \end{array}\right)<br />

is not diagonalizable. It could be, that for some reason B will never be like this, but I cannot know this for sure. If B can be like this, how does one prove the Bloch's theorem then?
 
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jostpuur said:
By basic theory of DEs, there exists two linearly independent solutions \psi_1,\psi_2 to the Schrödinger's equation
This is wrong, it depends on the potential. The Schrödinger equation is not a normal DE and there are for most values of E no solution at all to a specific potential which is the whole deal with quantum mechanics and often there is just one solution for a specific E.

Edit: Wrong topic, was answering on another topic...
 
For the quantum state ##|l,m\rangle= |2,0\rangle## the z-component of angular momentum is zero and ##|L^2|=6 \hbar^2##. According to uncertainty it is impossible to determine the values of ##L_x, L_y, L_z## simultaneously. However, we know that ##L_x## and ## L_y##, like ##L_z##, get the values ##(-2,-1,0,1,2) \hbar##. In other words, for the state ##|2,0\rangle## we have ##\vec{L}=(L_x, L_y,0)## with ##L_x## and ## L_y## one of the values ##(-2,-1,0,1,2) \hbar##. But none of these...

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