Analyticity and Laplacian Operator in Complex Functions: A Domain D Study

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The discussion focuses on proving the relationship WΔW = (Wx)² + (Wy)² for an analytic function f(z) in a domain D, where W = |f(z)|². Participants suggest rewriting the partial derivatives in terms of z and its conjugate, \bar{z}, to simplify calculations. The Laplacian operator Δ is expressed as Δ = 4∂z∂\bar{z}, facilitating the proof. Clarifications on notation and the use of partial derivatives are provided to ensure understanding of the mathematical expressions involved. The conversation emphasizes the importance of this approach for future calculations in complex analysis.
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Homework Statement


Let f(z) be analytic on a domain D. Let \Delta = (\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{\partial y^2}) Set W = |f(z)|2 show that W\DeltaW = (Wx)2+(Wy)2

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


W = (U2+V2)
\DeltaW = (\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{\partial y^2}) (U2+V2)

also 4(U2+V2)[(Vx)2+(Uy)2]
 
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Well, firstly kindly clean up your texing. The latex code for superscript is more concisely - ^{...} .

As to your question. Do the following.

1. Write z = x + i y,\ \bar{z} = x- i y. The rewrite \partial_x,\partial_y,\ \Delta in terms of z and \bar{z}. (using chain rule for partial differentials.)

2. Note that W = |f(z)|^2 = f(z)\bar{f(z)} = f(z)f(\bar{z})

Now solve.
 
Sorry about the latex coding or whatever... Thanks!
 
I'm confused... so would the \partialx = (1 + i\partialy/\partialx)(1 - i\partialy/\partialx) is it just \textit{z}\overline{z}?
 
Remember now, z and \bar{z} are my independent variables.

\partial_x = \frac{\partial x}{\partial z}\partial_z+\frac{\partial x}{\partial \bar{z}}\partial_{\bar{z}} = \partial_z + \partial_\bar{z}

Similarly, you can do it for y.
 
praharmitra said:
Remember now, z and \bar{z} are my independent variables.

\partial_x = \frac{\partial x}{\partial z}\partial_z+\frac{\partial x}{\partial \bar{z}}\partial_{\bar{z}} = \partial_z + \partial_\bar{z}

Similarly, you can do it for y.

so what's the difference between \partial_x and other one with x?
 
FanofAFan said:
so what's the difference between \partial_x and \partialx?

Oh, I'm sorry if I didn't clarify my notation. It is standard to call

\frac{\partial}{\partial x} as \partial_x.
 
ok so partial over the partial of x (x^2+y^2) = 2x, right?
so for what I'm doing the partial of x over the partial of z (x + iy) = (1)(partial of x over the partial of z) right?
 
FanofAFan said:
ok so partial over the partial of x (x^2+y^2) = 2x, right?
so for what I'm doing the partial of x over the partial of z (x + iy) = (1)(partial of x over the partial of z) right?

yes, that's right. The reason I'm asking you to write everything in terms of z and \bar{z} is that it makes the calculations very very easy. (And it is very to useful to know the behavior of \partial_x, etc. in terms of z and \bar{z} for future use)

What I want you to prove is

\Delta = \partial_x^2+\partial_y^2 = 4\partial_z\partial_{\bar{z}}
\partial_x = \partial_z + \partial_{\bar{z}}
\partial_y = i \partial_z - i \partial_{\bar{z}}

Now W\Delta W = f(z)f(\bar{z})\Delta f(z)f(\bar{z}) = 4f(z)f(\bar{z})\partial_zf(z)\partial_{\bar{z}}f(\bar{z})

Now (\partial_x W)^2+(\partial_y W)^2 = ?? (show that it is equal to the above expression.)
 

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