0.7 correlation but almost 0 p-value, how to interpret?

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    Correlation P-value
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the interpretation of a correlation coefficient of 0.7 alongside a very low p-value (approximately 10-92). Participants explore the implications of these statistical results in the context of assessing the relationship between two datasets.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the meaning of the low p-value, seeking clarity on whether it indicates trust in the correlation or suggests something else.
  • Another participant asserts that if the p-value is for testing the null hypothesis of no correlation, then the correlation is likely significant, and the value of 0.7 should be reliable.
  • A participant explains that the Pearson correlation coefficient measures linear relationships and that a low p-value indicates a very low probability of observing such a correlation if the datasets were uncorrelated.
  • There is a suggestion that the p-value indicates that it would be highly unusual for two uncorrelated datasets to appear correlated to such a degree.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the low p-value suggests a significant correlation, but there is some uncertainty regarding the interpretation of the p-value itself and the context of the datasets involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the reliability of the p-value may depend on the size of the datasets and the assumption of normality for the Pearson correlation coefficient.

fluidistic
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Hi guys,
I've compared 2 samples of data from which I expected some correlation. The result is that the correlation is about 0.7 while the p-value (calculated by a software) is about ##10^{-92}##.
I don't really know how to interpret this low p-value. Does that mean that I can fully trust that the correlation is indeed 0.7 or does that mean that not at all. That it's extremely unlikely.
Or does that implies something else?
Thank you.
 
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The p-value for what?

For being uncorrelated? Then you know it is correlated for sure, and probably with a correlation close to 0.7. Apart from very weird cases, this value of 0.7 should be quite precise, otherwise I don't see how you would get such a small p-value.
 
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mfb said:
The p-value for what?

For being uncorrelated? Then you know it is correlated for sure, and probably with a correlation close to 0.7. Apart from very weird cases, this value of 0.7 should be quite precise, otherwise I don't see how you would get such a small p-value.
From the program itself:
ThePearson correlation coefficient measures the linear relationship
between two datasets.Strictly speaking,Pearson's correlation requires
that each dataset be normally distributed. Like other correlation
coefficients, this one varies between -1 and +1 with 0 implying no
correlation. Correlations of -1 or +1 imply an exact linear
relationship. Positive correlations imply that as x increases, so does
y. Negative correlations imply that as x increases, y decreases.

The p-value roughly indicates the probability of an uncorrelated system
producing datasets that have a Pearson correlation at least as extreme
as the one computed from these datasets. The p-values are not entirely
reliable but are probably reasonable for datasets larger than 500 or so.
So... the probability that an uncorrelated data set having a correlation of 0.70 or more is basically 0, is what the p-value is telling me?
But "uncorrelated" from which data set? From both that I tested?
 
It means that your two data sets are very unlikely to be uncorrelated with each other, assuming that you have enough data . It would be a very freak occurrence for two uncorrelated data sets to appear that well correlated just by luck
 
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Thank you very much guys!
 

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