1.6.1 AP Calculus Exam Limits with L'H

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SUMMARY

The limit $\displaystyle\lim_{x \to 0}\dfrac{1-\cos^2(2x)}{(2x)^2}$ evaluates to 1 using L'Hôpital's rule. Initially, the expression simplifies to $\dfrac{0}{0}$, necessitating the application of L'Hôpital's rule. The first derivative of the numerator, $1 - \cos^2(2x)$, is $4 \sin(2x) \cos(2x)$, and the derivative of the denominator, $(2x)^2$, is $8x$. After applying L'Hôpital's rule twice, the limit is confirmed to be 1.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of L'Hôpital's rule
  • Familiarity with trigonometric limits, specifically $\lim_{u \to 0} \dfrac{\sin(u)}{u} = 1$
  • Basic knowledge of derivatives in calculus
  • Ability to manipulate trigonometric identities
NEXT STEPS
  • Study advanced applications of L'Hôpital's rule in calculus
  • Explore trigonometric identities and their proofs
  • Learn about Taylor series expansions for trigonometric functions
  • Investigate other limit evaluation techniques, such as epsilon-delta proofs
USEFUL FOR

Students preparing for the AP Calculus exam, educators teaching calculus concepts, and anyone looking to deepen their understanding of limits and derivatives in calculus.

karush
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$\displaystyle\lim_{x \to 0}\dfrac{1-\cos^2(2x)}{(2x)^2}=$

by quick observation it is seen that this will go to $\dfrac{0}{0)}$
so L'H rule becomes the tool to use
but first steps were illusive
the calculator returned 1 for the Limit
 
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$1-\cos^2 (2x) = \sin^2(2x)$

you should be familiar with this basic limit ...

$\displaystyle \lim_{u \to 0} \dfrac{\sin(u)}{u} = 1$
 
been i while,,,

i saw another example of the problem but expanded into confusion

that was slam dunk

mahalo
 
If you really want to do it the "hard way", L'Hopital's rule does work.
The derivative of $1- cos^2(2x)$ is $4 sin(2x)cos(2x)$ and the derivative of $(2x)^2= 4x^2$ is $8x$ so we look at the limit as x goes to 0 of $\frac{4 sin(2x)cos(2x)}{8x}= \frac{1}{2}\frac{sin(2x)cos(2x)}{x}$.
The numerator and denominator of that still go to 0 so use L'Hopital's rule again!
The derivative of $sin(2x)cos(2x)$ is $2cos^2(2x)- 2sin^2(2x)$ and the derivative of x is 1 so now we look at

$\frac{1}{2}\frac{2(cos^2(x)- sin^2(x)}{1}$. At x= 0, cos(x)= 1 and sin(x)= 0 so that is $\frac{1}{2}(2(1- 0))= 1$.
.
 

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