Answer: 10-Card Hand w/ 2 4-of-a-Kinds - No Pairs/3 of a Kinds

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the number of 10-card hands from a standard 52-card deck that contain exactly two 4-of-a-kinds, with no pairs or 3-of-a-kinds. The solution involves selecting 2 ranks for the 4-of-a-kinds using the combination formula 13C2, followed by selecting 2 different ranks from the remaining 11 ranks for the last two cards using 11C2. The final calculation combines these selections with the number of ways to choose cards from the selected ranks, resulting in a total of 68,640 valid hands.

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Homework Statement


How many 10-card hands are there chosen from a standard 52-card deck in which there are exactly two 4-of-a-kinds; no pairs or 3-of-a-kinds?

The Attempt at a Solution


if there are exactly 2 4 of a kinds that takes up 8 of the 10 cards in the hand and the remaining 2 must be of different kinds since there are no pairs. first we choose 2 kinds for the 4 of a kinds: 13C2 ways . now we have to make sure the last 2 cards are of different kinds so we pick 2 of the remaining 11 kinds: 11C2 ways. now for each of these kinds there are 4 ways to pick a card from them so 4x4 = 16.

the whole process is:
(13C2)(11C2)(16)

is this correct? I want to make sure I am not double counting anything
 
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Looks good; I got the same answer with the same reasoning before looking at your solution.
 
By using a slightly different reasoning, I got ##{{13}\choose{2}}({{44}\choose{2}}-11{{4}\choose{2}})##
Both our results give 68640, so that looks promising.
 
Another way to finish it off:

Once you have the two fours. The next card can be anything (44 cards) and the last card anything of a different kind (40 cards).
 
PeroK said:
Another way to finish it off:

Once you have the two fours. The next card can be anything (44 cards) and the last card anything of a different kind (40 cards).
This doesn't work because you would double count. Order of the draw doesn't matter, so you have to divide by 2!.

$$16\frac{11!}{2!9!} = \frac{16*11*10}{2} = \frac{44*40}{2}$$
 
Yes, that's what I meant!
 
thanks everyone
 

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