2 card hand probability question

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the probability of drawing at least one ace in a two-card hand from a standard deck of cards. Participants are exploring methods for calculating this probability, including direct calculation versus using the complement approach.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to calculate the probability directly by considering the number of ways to draw an ace and a non-ace, while others suggest using the complement method to find the probability of drawing zero aces instead.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on the complement method, indicating it may be simpler. There is an ongoing examination of the original poster's direct calculation method, with questions raised about its validity and the assumptions made regarding the counting of cases.

Contextual Notes

Participants are discussing the implications of order in the counting process and the need to account for different combinations of cards drawn. There is also mention of potential errors in the original counting method related to how cases are grouped.

CAF123
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Homework Statement


This is just a sort of clarification question: suppose I wanted to know the probability of getting at least one ace in a 2card hand. My question is : can this be calculated directly or would I need to use the complement?

Calculating directly, I said for the first card of the two there are 4 possibilities and for the second there are 51 possibilities so the required amount of hands is 4x51. I think this needs to be divided by 2! because I am not considering order.

The probability would then be [tex]\frac{\frac{4×51}{2!}}{(52 choose 2)},[/tex] could someone tell me whether this is correct or not. When I use it as part of a later question, I get the wrong answer.
Thanks
 
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You could calculate it directly but why would you want to? It is much easier to calculate the probability of getting 0 aces and subtracting that from 1. And no, your answer isn't correct.
 
CAF123 said:

Homework Statement


This is just a sort of clarification question: suppose I wanted to know the probability of getting at least one ace in a 2card hand. My question is : can this be calculated directly or would I need to use the complement?

Calculating directly, I said for the first card of the two there are 4 possibilities and for the second there are 51 possibilities so the required amount of hands is 4x51. I think this needs to be divided by 2! because I am not considering order.

The probability would then be [tex]\frac{\frac{4×51}{2!}}{(52 choose 2)},[/tex] could someone tell me whether this is correct or not. When I use it as part of a later question, I get the wrong answer.
Thanks

Note that {1 ace} = {AN or NA}, so P{1 ace} = P{AN} + P{NA}; here A = Ace, N = non-ace. Of course,
P{AN} = P{A first}*P{N second|A first}, etc.
P{2 aces} = P{AA}.
Or, as LCKurtz has suggested, compute 1 - P{NN}, which is a bit easier.

RGV
 
Last edited:
What exactly does my method fail to consider? Given that the question is probability that at least one ace is in a 2 card hand we have 4 possibilities for the first card (one of them must be ace) and 51 for the other card. Divide by 2! to neglect order and divide by sample space.
 
CAF123 said:
What exactly does my method fail to consider? Given that the question is probability that at least one ace is in a 2 card hand we have 4 possibilities for the first card (one of them must be ace) and 51 for the other card. Divide by 2! to neglect order and divide by sample space.

Let's call the ace of spades AS, ace of hearts AH and one of spades 1S. Then your 4*51 count includes {AS,AH} and {AH,AS}, so you want to divide that case by two. On the other hand, it only contains {AS,1S} NOT {1S,AS}. So dividing by two in that case is a mistake. You are bunching too many cases together.
 
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