MHB 4.2.204 AP calculus practice question

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The discussion revolves around finding the derivative of the function defined by the integral f(x)=∫₁^{x³} (1/(1+ln t)) dt for x≥1. The derivative is calculated using the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (FTOC) and the Leibniz integral rule, leading to the expression f'(x)= (3x²)/(1+ln(x³)). Substituting x=2 into this expression results in f'(2)= 12/(1+ln(8)), confirming option D as the correct answer. Participants express varying comfort levels with the Leibniz rule, with some preferring the straightforward application of FTOC to avoid mistakes. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding both rules in calculus for solving such problems effectively.
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If $\displaystyle f(x)=\int_1^{x^3}\dfrac{1}{1+\ln t}\, dt$ for $x\ge 1$ then $f'(2)=$

(A) $\dfrac{1}{1+\ln 2}$

(B) $\dfrac{12}{1+\ln 2}$

(C) $\dfrac{1}{1+\ln 8}$

(D) $\dfrac{12}{1+\ln 8}$

ok I am little be baffled by this one due the $x^3$ in the limits
since from homework you just take integral and then plug in f'(x)

AP Calculus Exam PDF {WIP}
https://drive.google.com/file/d/131RCqemH8cHPh5FIW9VtqLPO4Kni0Bqo/view?usp=sharing
 
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By the FTOC, we have:

$$f'(x)=\frac{d}{dx}\int_1^{x^3}\frac{1}{1+\ln(t)}\,dt=\frac{3x^2}{1+\ln(x^3)}$$

Hence:

$$f'(2)=\frac{12}{1+\ln(8)}$$
 
well that's interesting
mahalo...
 
MarkFL said:
By the FTOC, we have:

$$f'(x)=\frac{d}{dx}\int_1^{x^3}\frac{1}{1+\ln(t)}\,dt=\frac{3x^2}{1+\ln(x)}$$

That is actually by the more advanced Leibniz integral rule.

And in this case $x^3$ should be substituted instead of $x$:

$$f'(x)=\frac{d}{dx}\int_1^{x^3}\frac{1}{1+\ln(t)}\,dt
= \left[\frac{1}{1+\ln(t)}\right]_{t=x^3}\cdot \d{}x(x^3) - \left[\frac{1}{1+\ln(t)}\right]_{t=1}\cdot\d{}x(1)
=\frac{3x^2}{1+\ln(x^3)}$$
 
In general, "Leibniz's rule": if f(x)= \int_{\alpha(x)}^{\beta(x)} g(x.t)dt then
\frac{df(x)}{dx}= g(x, \beta(x))\frac{d\beta}{dx}- g(x,\alpha(x))\frac{d\alpha}{dx}+ \int_{\alpha(x)}^{\beta(X)} \frac{\partial g}{\partial x} dt.

That includes the basic "Fundamental theorem of Calculus" given in Calculus texts as a special case: if \beta(x)= x, \alpha(x)= a, a constant, and g(x,t)= g(t) with no dependence on x, then \frac{d\beta}{dx}= 1, \frac{d\alpha}{dx}= 0, and \frac{\partial g}{\partial x}= 0 so
\left(\int_a^x g(t)dt\right)'= g(x).
 
I've edited my post to correct it. I should have referred to my notes on the FTOC rather than "winging it." (Giggle)
 
MarkFL said:
I've edited my post to correct it. I should have referred to my notes on the FTOC rather than "winging it."

I consider the Leibniz integration rule difficult to remember and it's easy to make mistakes with it. (Giggle)
So I prefer to use 'just' FTOC and 'wing it'. (Nerd)

In this case, we can define:
$$G(u) = \int_1^u \frac{1}{1+\ln(t)}\,dt$$
Then:
$$f'(x)=\d{}x \int_1^{x^3}\frac{1}{1+\ln(t)}\,dt = \d{}x \Big(G(x^3) - G(1)\Big) = G'(x^3)\cdot 3x^2$$
Now we can apply FTOC to find:
$$G'(u) = \frac{1}{1+\ln(u)} \implies f'(x) = \frac{1}{1+\ln(x^3)}\cdot 3x^2$$

Like this we use only the chain rule and FTOC.
Less room for mistakes and no need to remember the Leibniz integration rule.
 

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