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Thanks a lot.

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- Thread starter ziyanlan
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Thanks a lot.

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disregardthat

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Thanks a lot.

I don't know what context this is in, but my answer would be that (Xn,Yn) converges to (X,Y) is equivalent to the statement that Xn converges to X and Yn converges to Y (with respect to any topology). Hence, if we treat these events as A and B respectively, you know P(A) = 1, P(B) = 1, hence [tex]P(A \cap B) = P(A)+P(B) -P(A \cup B) =1[/tex].

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