issacnewton
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Hi
I am going through Edx course on Introduction to Differential Equations by Paul Blanchard (BUx: Math226.1x). At one point, he is explaining the Logistic population model.$$\frac{dp}{dt} = kp\left(1- \frac{p}{N}\right) $$ After this, he says that since the right hand side does not involve t, if p(0) = 0 then \frac{dp}{dt} = 0 for all t. I don't quite get his logic here. Can anyone explain this please ?
Thanks
I am going through Edx course on Introduction to Differential Equations by Paul Blanchard (BUx: Math226.1x). At one point, he is explaining the Logistic population model.$$\frac{dp}{dt} = kp\left(1- \frac{p}{N}\right) $$ After this, he says that since the right hand side does not involve t, if p(0) = 0 then \frac{dp}{dt} = 0 for all t. I don't quite get his logic here. Can anyone explain this please ?
Thanks