Undergrad A strange definition for Hermitian operator

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The definition of a Hermitian operator as one that has real eigenvalues is questioned, as non-Hermitian operators can also exhibit real eigenvalues. The discussion highlights that while Hermitian operators are guaranteed to have real eigenvalues, the reverse is not true. A counterexample provided is a non-Hermitian matrix that has real eigenvalues, demonstrating the inaccuracy of the initial definition. Additionally, a proper definition of Hermitian operators includes the ability to diagonalize the matrix using a unitary transformation. The conversation emphasizes the importance of distinguishing between implications and equivalences in mathematical definitions.
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In lecture notes at a university (I'd rather not say which university) the following definition for Hermitian is given:

An operator is Hermitian if and only if it has real eigenvalues.


I find it questionable because I thought that non-Hermitian operators can sometimes have real eigenvalues. We can correctly say that Hermitian operators can only have real eigenvalues but that does not define the operator, right? Is it some kind of convention or is it just plain wrong? Alas the physicists often don't understand the difference between an implication and equivalence.
 
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The statement which was give to you is wrong. One can find a non-hermitean matrix with real eigenvalues.
 
Counterexample: $$
\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 1 \\
0 & 1
\end{pmatrix} $$
has eigenvalue 1 with multiplicty 2. It's not Hermitian.
 
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A matrix is hermitian if it has real eigenvalues and you can diagonalize it with a unitary transformation. This means that if and only if matrix ##A## is hermitian, there exists a matrix ##U## such that ##U^\dagger U = UU^\dagger = 1## and ##U^\dagger A U## is a diagonal matrix with real numbers on the diagonal.
 
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Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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