Undergrad A strange definition for Hermitian operator

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the definition of Hermitian operators in quantum mechanics, specifically addressing a university's lecture notes that state an operator is Hermitian if and only if it has real eigenvalues. This definition is deemed incorrect, as non-Hermitian operators can also possess real eigenvalues, exemplified by the matrix $$ \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} $$, which has a real eigenvalue of 1 but is not Hermitian. A correct definition states that a matrix is Hermitian if it can be diagonalized by a unitary transformation, ensuring real eigenvalues.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of linear algebra concepts, particularly eigenvalues and eigenvectors.
  • Familiarity with Hermitian matrices and their properties.
  • Knowledge of unitary transformations and their role in quantum mechanics.
  • Basic understanding of matrix diagonalization techniques.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of Hermitian matrices and their significance in quantum mechanics.
  • Learn about non-Hermitian matrices and explore examples with real eigenvalues.
  • Research unitary transformations and their applications in diagonalization.
  • Examine the implications of eigenvalue multiplicity in matrix theory.
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Students of quantum mechanics, physicists, mathematicians, and anyone interested in the properties of operators in linear algebra.

struggling_student
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In lecture notes at a university (I'd rather not say which university) the following definition for Hermitian is given:

An operator is Hermitian if and only if it has real eigenvalues.


I find it questionable because I thought that non-Hermitian operators can sometimes have real eigenvalues. We can correctly say that Hermitian operators can only have real eigenvalues but that does not define the operator, right? Is it some kind of convention or is it just plain wrong? Alas the physicists often don't understand the difference between an implication and equivalence.
 
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The statement which was give to you is wrong. One can find a non-hermitean matrix with real eigenvalues.
 
Counterexample: $$
\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 1 \\
0 & 1
\end{pmatrix} $$
has eigenvalue 1 with multiplicty 2. It's not Hermitian.
 
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A matrix is hermitian if it has real eigenvalues and you can diagonalize it with a unitary transformation. This means that if and only if matrix ##A## is hermitian, there exists a matrix ##U## such that ##U^\dagger U = UU^\dagger = 1## and ##U^\dagger A U## is a diagonal matrix with real numbers on the diagonal.
 
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Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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