Alternating Series Convergence: Is the Series Sum of sin(1/n^2) Convergent?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the series defined by the sum of sin(1/n^2) as n approaches infinity. Participants are exploring the nature of this series and its convergence properties.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of the limit comparison test and the potential application of the limit test. There is an examination of the relationship between sin(1/n^2) and a p-series, with one participant attempting to justify their reasoning through algebraic manipulation.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants offering guidance on the application of convergence tests. One participant acknowledges an error in their initial reasoning, while another provides clarification on the limit comparison approach, suggesting that the convergence of a related series could imply the convergence of the original series.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of confusion regarding the terminology used in the thread title, specifically the reference to an 'alternating' series, which does not apply to the given problem. Participants also express a sense of mental fatigue while working through the problem.

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Homework Statement



Sorry I don't know how to use symbols on this site so bear with me:

the question is does the following series converge: sum of sin(1/n^2) where n goes from 1 to infinity

Homework Equations



Limit comparison test, maybe others

The Attempt at a Solution



Okay I think I got the solution but I'm not sure if the logic is correct. I divided sin(1/n^2) by the p-series (1/n).

This comes out to n/sin(1/n^2)...the top will go to infinity and the bottom will go to 0 as n goes to infinity, so the series divergies. Because 1/n also diverges (harmonic series) sin(1/n^2) also diverges. Is this right?
 
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Don't know why I said 'alternating' series in the thread title...my brain is becoming mush!
 
I think limit test is probably the way to go, however I think you're doing a few things wrong with it.

With [tex]a_n[/tex] being the given function, consider [tex]b_n = \frac{1}{n^2}[/tex]

Then,
[tex]\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{a_n}{b_n} = \lim_{n \to \infty} n^2\sin{\frac{1}{n^2}}[/tex]

Now, you should be able to show that that limit is finite, so the convergence of the sum of [tex]b_n[/tex] would imply the convergence of the sum of [tex]a_n[/tex]. Does that help?
 
Yep that fixes it, I also made an algebraic error thinking sin was on the denominator. Brain is going to mush. Thanks!
 

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