An infinite sequence of independent trails is to be performed

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on calculating probabilities using the Binomial distribution for an infinite sequence of independent trials with success probability p. Participants confirm the approach to finding the probability of at least one success in the first n trials by calculating P(X=0) and using the formula P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X=0). Additionally, they validate the method for determining the probability of exactly k successes in the first n trials as P(X=k). The final query regarding the probability that all trials result in success is identified as equivalent to the second case with k equal to n.

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TomJerry
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Question :
An infinite sequence of independent trails is to be performed . Each trails resulting in a success with probability p and failure with probability 1-p . What is the probability that
i) atleast 1 success occurs in the first n trails ;
ii) exactly k success occur in the first n trails;
ii) all trails result in a success;
Solution
I am using Binomial distribution.

i) I will find the P(X of getting 0 success)
Then P(X>= 1) = 1 - P(X of getting 0 success) [IS THIS CORRECT]

ii) For the 2nd P(X=k) in binomial [AM I CORRECT]

iii) DOnt know how to do this one :confused:
 
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Hi TomJerry! :smile:

i) yes :smile:

ii) yes, but perhaps you'd better write it in full, so we're sure you know what that means? :wink:

iii) erm :redface: … isn't that just ii) with k = n ? :biggrin:
 

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