MHB An Integral with a Fraction and e

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The integral $$ \int \frac{1}{e^x + e^{-x}}\,dx $$ can be approached by multiplying by $$\frac{e^x}{e^x}$$ and using the substitution $u = e^x$, which simplifies the expression for further manipulation. Another effective method involves recognizing that the denominator can be expressed in terms of the hyperbolic cosine function, leading to the integral $$ \int \frac{1}{2\cosh(x)}\,dx $$. This can be transformed into a form suitable for trigonometric substitution by rewriting it as $$ \frac{1}{2} \int \frac{\cosh(x)}{1 + \sinh^2(x)}\,dx $$ and then substituting $u = \sinh(x)$, which simplifies the integration process. These methods provide viable pathways to solve the integral efficiently.
tmt1
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$$ \int_{}^{} \frac{1}{ e^x + {e}^{-x}}\,dx $$

I have this integral, and I'm not sure how to approach it. I tried u-substitution with $u = e^x + {e} ^{-x}$, but that seemed to go to a dead end. I'm not sure how to apply partial fractions to this problem. Is there a better way?
 
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Hi tmt,

I would try multiplying by $$\frac{e^x}{e^x}$$ and then using the substitution $u=e^x$. That should get it into a form where you can use trig substitution to solve. :)
 
Alternatively, since $\displaystyle \begin{align*} \cosh{(x)} = \frac{1}{2}\,\left( \mathrm{e}^x + \mathrm{e}^{-x} \right) \end{align*}$ that means the integral is

$\displaystyle \begin{align*} \int{\frac{1}{\mathrm{e}^x + \mathrm{e}^{-x}}\,\mathrm{d}x} &= \int{ \frac{1}{2\cosh{(x)}}\,\mathrm{d}x } \\ &= \int{ \frac{\cosh{(x)}}{2\cosh^2{(x)}}\,\mathrm{d}x} \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \int{ \frac{\cosh{(x)}}{1 + \sinh^2{(x)}}\,\mathrm{d}x} \end{align*}$

You can now substitute $\displaystyle \begin{align*} u = \sinh{(x)} \implies \mathrm{d}u = \cosh{(x)}\,\mathrm{d}x \end{align*}$.
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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