Analytic on D: Power Series and Polynomial Coefficients

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the analytic function \(f\) defined on the disc \(D\) and the implications of having at least one zero coefficient in its power series expansion at each point \(a \in D\). It concludes that if \(f^{(m)} = 0\) for some \(m\), then \(f\) must be a polynomial on \(D\). The Heine-Borel Theorem is utilized to establish that the set \(A_k\) of points where the \(n\)-th derivative vanishes has an accumulation point in \(D\), leading to the conclusion that \(f\) is indeed a polynomial.

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Dustinsfl
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If $f$ is analytic on the disc D and for each $a\in D$, the power series of $f$ expanded at
a has at least one coefficient equal to zero, then f is a polynomial on D.

I am at a loss here.
 
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Take \(D'\subset D\) any closed subdisk, and consider the sets \(A_n=\{ x\in D' : f^{(n)}(x)=0 \}\). Prove that one of these, say \(A_k\), has an accumulation point in \(D\), what can you say about \(f^{(k)}\)?
 
Last edited:
Jose27 said:
Take \(D'\subset D\) any closed subdisk, and consider the sets \(A_n=\{ x\in D' : f^{(n)}(x)=0 \}\). Prove that one of these, say \(A_k\), has an accumulation point in \(D\), what can you say about \(f^{(k)}\)?

Since D' is bounded and closed, by the Heine-Borel Theorem, D' is compact. In D', $A_k$ would have an accumulation point. How can I extended that into D? How does that help with showing $f$ is a polynomial?
 
So $\displaystyle\bigcup A_n = D'$ and at least one $A_n$ is infinite. Let $A_m$ be infinite.
We have a sequence $a_m\in A_m$ in $D'$. By the Heine-Borel Theorem, $D'$ is compact and has a convergent subsequence of $a_m$. Therefore, $f^{(m)} = 0$ and $f$ is a polynomial.

Is this good?
 
dwsmith said:
So $\displaystyle\bigcup A_n = D'$ and at least one $A_n$ is infinite. Let $A_m$ be infinite.
We have a sequence $a_m\in A_m$ in $D'$. By the Heine-Borel Theorem, $D'$ is compact and has a convergent subsequence of $a_m$. Therefore, $f^{(m)} = 0$ and $f$ is a polynomial.

Is this good?

As long as you know why each of your claims is valid then yes, everything's fine.
 
Jose27 said:
As long as you know why each of your claims is valid then yes, everything's fine.

I think I am unsure of is $f^{m} = 0$ and $f$ is a polynomial. Can you explain why that is the case?
 
Look up the identity theorem. For the rest, surely you can argue that if $f^{(m)}\equiv 0$ then $f$ is a polynomial.
 

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