MHB Analytic on D: Power Series and Polynomial Coefficients

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If a function \( f \) is analytic on the disc \( D \) and has at least one zero coefficient in its power series expansion at every point \( a \in D \), it can be concluded that \( f \) is a polynomial. The discussion emphasizes the use of the Heine-Borel Theorem to establish that within any closed subdisk \( D' \), the sets \( A_n \) of points where the \( n \)-th derivative of \( f \) equals zero must contain an accumulation point. This leads to the conclusion that if one of these sets, say \( A_m \), is infinite, then \( f^{(m)} \) must equal zero in \( D' \). The identity theorem supports the argument that if \( f^{(m)} \equiv 0 \), then \( f \) is indeed a polynomial. The discussion confirms the validity of these claims, reinforcing the connection between the properties of derivatives and the polynomial nature of \( f \).
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If $f$ is analytic on the disc D and for each $a\in D$, the power series of $f$ expanded at
a has at least one coefficient equal to zero, then f is a polynomial on D.

I am at a loss here.
 
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Take \(D'\subset D\) any closed subdisk, and consider the sets \(A_n=\{ x\in D' : f^{(n)}(x)=0 \}\). Prove that one of these, say \(A_k\), has an accumulation point in \(D\), what can you say about \(f^{(k)}\)?
 
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Jose27 said:
Take \(D'\subset D\) any closed subdisk, and consider the sets \(A_n=\{ x\in D' : f^{(n)}(x)=0 \}\). Prove that one of these, say \(A_k\), has an accumulation point in \(D\), what can you say about \(f^{(k)}\)?

Since D' is bounded and closed, by the Heine-Borel Theorem, D' is compact. In D', $A_k$ would have an accumulation point. How can I extended that into D? How does that help with showing $f$ is a polynomial?
 
So $\displaystyle\bigcup A_n = D'$ and at least one $A_n$ is infinite. Let $A_m$ be infinite.
We have a sequence $a_m\in A_m$ in $D'$. By the Heine-Borel Theorem, $D'$ is compact and has a convergent subsequence of $a_m$. Therefore, $f^{(m)} = 0$ and $f$ is a polynomial.

Is this good?
 
dwsmith said:
So $\displaystyle\bigcup A_n = D'$ and at least one $A_n$ is infinite. Let $A_m$ be infinite.
We have a sequence $a_m\in A_m$ in $D'$. By the Heine-Borel Theorem, $D'$ is compact and has a convergent subsequence of $a_m$. Therefore, $f^{(m)} = 0$ and $f$ is a polynomial.

Is this good?

As long as you know why each of your claims is valid then yes, everything's fine.
 
Jose27 said:
As long as you know why each of your claims is valid then yes, everything's fine.

I think I am unsure of is $f^{m} = 0$ and $f$ is a polynomial. Can you explain why that is the case?
 
Look up the identity theorem. For the rest, surely you can argue that if $f^{(m)}\equiv 0$ then $f$ is a polynomial.
 

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