Analyzing a Proof of Phi-Function Multiplicativity

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The discussion centers on proving the multiplicativity of the phi-function in number theory. A participant questions the transition from a sum involving gcd conditions to a product of sums, indicating that the sets may not be disjoint. Another suggests using Euler's formula for the phi-function as a clearer approach. The validity of the gcd condition is acknowledged, but the method of splitting the sums requires clarification. Overall, the proof's structure needs refinement for better clarity and correctness.
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I'm trying to write a sound prove to proof that phi-function is multiplicative in the aspect of number theoretic function. Please comment on my proof. Thanks in advance.

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Hi, one question,

how did you step from "the sum where gcd...m and gcd...n" to "(the sum where gcd...m) times (the sum where gcd...n)" ?
 
The passage from the first line to the second is not correct; the set of a's such that gcd(a,m) = 1 may not be disjoint from the gcd(a,n) = 1.

One suggestion: instead of working with the sums, try using Euler's formula for \varphi:

\varphi\left(n\right) = n\left(\ 1 - \frac{1}{p_{1}}\right)\left(\ 1 - \frac{1}{p_{2}}\right)...\left(\ 1 - \frac{1}{p_{k}}\right)

Where p_{1},...,p_{n} are the prime factors of n.
 
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Thus, the lemma is answered , so will my proof for multiplicative function to be true?
 

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help please (=
 
Nobody questioned the validity of gcd(a,mn) = 1 iff gcd(a,m) = gcd(a,n) = 1; this is true. It's simply the way you split the sums that's a bit unclear, and could be improved.
 
thanks ! but that split sum is valid?
 

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