Analyzing Analytic Functions: Solving a Complex Analysis Conundrum

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the analysis of an analytic function f defined on the disc D = {z ∈ C | |z| < 1}, with the condition f(0) = 1. The key question posed is whether f(a) = f'(a) holds true for specific values of a related to prime numbers, leading to the conclusion that f(z) must equal e^z for all z in D. The conversation reveals that this problem is equivalent to the twin prime conjecture and ultimately concludes that the problem was part of a joke qualifying exam, highlighting the importance of careful reading in problem-solving.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of analytic functions and their properties
  • Familiarity with the concept of analytic continuation
  • Knowledge of prime numbers and the twin prime conjecture
  • Basic calculus, particularly differentiation and exponential functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the principles of analytic continuation in complex analysis
  • Research the twin prime conjecture and its implications in number theory
  • Explore the properties of exponential functions in the context of complex variables
  • Examine examples of analytic functions and their derivatives
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of complex analysis, and anyone interested in the relationship between analytic functions and number theory.

Jorriss
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I came across an interesting problem that I have made no progress on.

Let f be an analytic function on the disc ##D = \{z \in C ~|~ |z| < 1\}## satisfying ##f(0) = 1##. Is the following
statement true or false? If ##f(a) = f^\prime(a) ## whenever ##\frac{1+a}{a}## and ##\frac{1-a}{a}## are prime numbers then ##f(z) = e^z## for all ## z \in D##.

Obviously I know that ##f(z) = e^z## solves ##f^\prime = f##, but I don't see how to use that here.
 
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i guess you want to show your function also satisfies f-f' = 0. since f is analytic, it suffices to show it satisfies this equation on an infinite set with a limit point in the open disc. do you know the principle of analytic continuation?
 
mathwonk said:
i guess you want to show your function also satisfies f-f' = 0. since f is analytic, it suffices to show it satisfies this equation on an infinite set with a limit point in the open disc. do you know the principle of analytic continuation?

And notice the a here are all on the Real line.
 
Are you sure this is a serious problem? It looks to be equivalent to the twin prime conjecture.

Note that if \frac{1+a}{a}=p, then a=\frac{1}{p-1}, which is inside your domain for all odd primes p. f will necessarily be the exponential iff there are infinitely many such values of a (so that they will have a limit point in the domain. We don't need to worry about the limit point being on the boundary |z|=1 since a decreases as p increases), but \frac{1+a}{a} and \frac{1-a}{a} are twin primes so your statement is equivalent to the twin prime conjecture.
 
HS-Scientist said:
Are you sure this is a serious problem? It looks to be equivalent to the twin prime conjecture.
As it would turn out, no it wasn't. It was the first problem in a joke qualifying exam. The other problems made it far more obvious that it was not serious. Anyhow, thanks for your insight into the joke I suppose!
 
Kind of embarrassed at how I missed that. I guess I should read problems more carefully before trying to solve them.
 

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