Undergrad Why Don't L2 and Ly Commute When L2 and Lx Do?

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The discussion centers on the commutation relationships between angular momentum operators L2, Lx, and Ly. It is established that while L2 and Lx commute, leading to a common eigenbasis, L2 and Ly do not commute, resulting in a different eigenbasis. The non-commutation of Lx and Ly indicates that their eigenbases cannot be the same. The conversation also highlights the utility of a spin-1/2 system for understanding these concepts through simple 2x2 matrices. Overall, the key point is that the existence of different eigenbases arises from the non-commutation of certain operators.
dyn
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Hi.
To show that [ L2 , L+ ] uses the following commutators [ L2 , Lx ] = 0 and [ L2 , Ly ] = 0 . But if [ L2 , Lx ] = 0 this shows that L2 and Lx have simultaneous eigenstates ; but then should L2 and Ly not commute ?
Thanks
 
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dyn said:
Hi.
To show that [ L2 , L+ ] uses the following commutators [ L2 , Lx ] = 0 and [ L2 , Ly ] = 0 . But if [ L2 , Lx ] = 0 this shows that L2 and Lx have simultaneous eigenstates ; but then should L2 and Ly not commute ?
Thanks
No. If A and B commute so have a common eigenbasis and B and C commute so have a different common eigenbasis, it does not follow that A and C commute and have a common eigenbasis.
 
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Thanks. So L2 and Lx have a common eigenbasis as the 2 operators commute and L2 and Ly have a different common eigenbasis. But as Lx and Ly do not commute these 2 sets of eigenbases can never be the same ?
 
dyn said:
Thanks. So L2 and Lx have a common eigenbasis as the 2 operators commute and L2 and Ly have a different common eigenbasis. But as Lx and Ly do not commute these 2 sets of eigenbases can never be the same ?

A spin-1/2 system is useful because the operators are simple 2x2 matrices. I suggest you work through this example for these AM operators.

Note that the identity operator, ##I##, commutes with everything (and every vector is an eigenvector of ##I##). So, ##I## has a shared eigenbasis with all operators that have an eigenbasis (such as Hermitian operators).
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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