Another question on Schrodinger Equation

[Rade]

I have read the following claim (where is not important):

...the Schrödinger equation provides no rational basis for the phenomenon of spin, the Pauli Exclusion Principle, or Hund's Rule...

Is such a claim true ? If so, what does it matter ?

 

[dextercioby]

The symmetrization postulate is a postulate just like the SE (when the axioms are presented in the Schrödinger picture),
so no interference, they are completely independent. The spin comes from the Galilei group;
well, from the Galilei group one can derive the SE using the
theorem of Wigner and Bargmann. The Hund's rules can be derived if one was able to fully solve the SE for an arbitrary
atom, hence for all atoms of the elements in the PT.

Oh, and it's Schrödinger or Schroedinger (in the unfortunate case you can't put the Umlaut), not Schrödinger.

So that claim is wrong.