mathwonk
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I still don't understand your objection. To prove that 1 is the lub of all the numbers of form .99...9,
all I need to do is show two things:
1) 1 is at least as great as all those finite decimals,
2) no smaller number than 1 is also as great as all of them, i.e. any number smaller than 1 is also smaller than one of those finite decimals, or equivalently no positive number is smaller than all the differences 1 - .999...9.
= .000...001.
But part 1) is true by definition of the lexicographic order on finite decimals. Part 2) is proved in post 30.
If you like, I am showing that 1 is less than or equal to .99999..., not directly, but by showing it is less than or equal to EVERY upper bound of all the finite numbers .9999...9. In particular, since .999... is such an upper bound, 1 is less than or equal to it too.
all I need to do is show two things:
1) 1 is at least as great as all those finite decimals,
2) no smaller number than 1 is also as great as all of them, i.e. any number smaller than 1 is also smaller than one of those finite decimals, or equivalently no positive number is smaller than all the differences 1 - .999...9.
= .000...001.
But part 1) is true by definition of the lexicographic order on finite decimals. Part 2) is proved in post 30.
If you like, I am showing that 1 is less than or equal to .99999..., not directly, but by showing it is less than or equal to EVERY upper bound of all the finite numbers .9999...9. In particular, since .999... is such an upper bound, 1 is less than or equal to it too.
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