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Any quick help with rearranging schrodinger equation in dirac notation

  1. Aug 17, 2014 #1
    I'm looking through my lecture notes, (studying relativistic corrections/perturbation theory using hydrogen), and I seem to have a mind block with one of the equations (the last one from the 3 in the middle).

    I know that the kinetic energy and coulomb potential has been subbed in for the operator H0, but I don't understand the rearrangement. Simply multiply both sides by 2*m, then take the coulomb potential to the other side.

    The coulomb potential (the e^2 term) on the left hand side is positive, moving it to the right would make it negative, so why is it postive?

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  3. Aug 17, 2014 #2

    Simon Bridge

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    ... I think I see what you mean.
    ##V(r)=e^2/4\pi\epsilon_0r## would be a repulsive potential wouldn't it?
    If the potential is supposed to be attractive, then they've made a typo in the initial substitution: there should be a minus sign in there.
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