Approximation of a function in limit of small and large x

[FrankDrebon]

Hi all,

I'm having a bit of trouble getting my head round approximations to a function in the limit of small and large values of the x parameter. The function is:

y = x\left\{ {\left[ {1 + \left( {{1 \over x}} \right)^2 } \right]^{{1 \over 2}} - 1} \right\}

The paper I'm reading says y becomes independent of x for small values of x. For large values of x, y becomes proportional to (1/x). Has anyone got any ideas of how this can be shown algebraically? I haven't had to do this for a while!

FD

 

[DonAntonio]

Hi all,

I'm having a bit of trouble getting my head round approximations to a function in the limit of small and large values of the x parameter. The function is:

y = x\left\{ {\left[ {1 + \left( {{1 \over x}} \right)^2 } \right]^{{1 \over 2}} - 1} \right\}

The paper I'm reading says y becomes independent of x for small values of x. For large values of x, y becomes proportional to (1/x). Has anyone got any ideas of how this can be shown algebraically? I haven't had to do this for a while!

FD

Let us look at
h(x):=\frac{\left(1+\frac{1}{x^2}\right)^{1/2}-1}{\frac{1}{x}}

When \,x\to 0\, , both numerator and denominator above go to \,\pm \infty , so applying L'Hospital we get:

\lim_{x\to 0}h(x)=\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{-\frac{1}{x^3}\left(1+\frac{1}{x^2}\right)^{-1/2}}{-\frac{1}{x^2}}=\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{1}{x\left(1+\frac{1}{x^2}\right)^{1/2}}=\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{1}{\left(x^2+1\right)^{1/2}}=1

the above being possible if \,x>0\,\,,\,i.e.\,\,\lim_{x\to 0^+}\, . If we take the limit from the left just

multiply by \,-1\, after the 3rd. equality above and proceed then as before. The limit then is \,-1 .

This shows the paper you're reading is wrong as the value approached definitely depends on
whether x is "very small",

positive or negative . It's easy to see that has x becomes larger and larger the expression in the square root

becomes closer to 1.

Doing exactly the same as above in the case \,x\to\infty\, , we get the limit is now zero, but the

thing about "proporcionality" perhaps means that \,|h(x)|\leq\frac{M}{x}\,\,\,,\,\,as\,\,\,x \to \infty\,\,,\,M=\, a constant. Check this.

DonAntonio

 

[mfb]

You can calculate the taylor expansion for h(x) at x=0 and for h(1/x) at 1/x=0 - in both cases, use the limit value where h is not well-defined. If x cannot be negative, this limit exists.Hand-wavy way for small x: (1+z)^(1/2) = 1+z/2+O(z^2) for small z, therefore
h(x) = x \left(\frac{1}{x}(1+x^2)^{1/2}-1\right) = x\left(\frac{1}{x}(1+\frac{x^2}{2}+O(x^4))-1\right)=1-x+\frac{x^2}{2}+O(x^4)
Well, I would not call this "independent of x", the single "-x" does not fit to this.
Another way would be to derive your whole equation. If the limit of the derivative is 0 (it is not, unless I made a mistake), you could call this "independent of x".And small 1/x:
h(x)=x \left(1+\frac{1}{x^2}+O(\frac{1}{x^4})-1\right) = \frac{1}{x} + O(\frac{1}{x^3})
Another way here would be to show that y*x approaches a constant for x->infinity.@DonAntonio: This would be an upper limit, not a proportionality.

 

[Matt Benesi]

y = x\left\{ {\left[ {1 + \left( {{1 \over x}} \right)^2 } \right]^{{1 \over 2}} - 1} \right\}

Isn't that the same as:

f(x) = x \times \sqrt {1 + \left( {{1 \over x}} \right)^2 } - x

which is equal to:

f(x) = \sqrt {x^2 + x^2 \times\left( {{1 \over x^2}} \right) } - x

which is equal to:

f(x) = \sqrt {x^2 + 1 } - x

Which leads us to the conclusions:
\lim_{x\to\infty} \sqrt {x^2 + 1 } - x =0
and
\lim_{x\to 0} \sqrt {x^2 + 1 } - x = 1

 

[pwsnafu]

Isn't that the same as:

f(x) = x \times \sqrt {1 + \left( {{1 \over x}} \right)^2 } - x

x can be negative so the next line is wrong. Remember \sqrt{x^2} = |x|