sabbagh80
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Hi, everybody
Let n_1 ~ Poisson (\lambda_1) and n_2 ~ Poisson (\lambda_2).
Now define n=n_1-n_2. We know n has "Skellam distribution" with mean \lambda_1-\lambda_2 and variance \lambda_1+\lambda_2, which is not easy to deal with.
I want to find the Pr(n \geq 0). Is it possible to find a good approximation for the above probability by employing an approximated "Gaussian distribution"? If "Gaussian" is not a good candidate, which distribution can I replace it with?
Let n_1 ~ Poisson (\lambda_1) and n_2 ~ Poisson (\lambda_2).
Now define n=n_1-n_2. We know n has "Skellam distribution" with mean \lambda_1-\lambda_2 and variance \lambda_1+\lambda_2, which is not easy to deal with.
I want to find the Pr(n \geq 0). Is it possible to find a good approximation for the above probability by employing an approximated "Gaussian distribution"? If "Gaussian" is not a good candidate, which distribution can I replace it with?