Are all closed forms exact? Are all exact forms closed?

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the relationship between closed forms and exact forms in the context of vector fields, specifically addressing whether every closed form is exact and vice versa. It is established that every exact form is closed, supported by the properties of the exterior derivative. The conversation references the Poincaré Lemma, which asserts that all closed forms are locally exact, and emphasizes the importance of global topology in determining the exactness of closed forms, particularly in relation to de Rham cohomology classes in \(\mathbb{R}^3\).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of vector calculus concepts such as gradient, curl, and divergence.
  • Familiarity with exterior derivatives and their properties.
  • Knowledge of de Rham cohomology and its implications in topology.
  • Basic grasp of the Poincaré Lemma and its application in differential forms.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of exterior derivatives in differential geometry.
  • Explore the implications of the Poincaré Lemma in various topological spaces.
  • Learn about de Rham cohomology and its role in understanding closed and exact forms.
  • Investigate the relationship between vector fields and their corresponding forms in \(\mathbb{R}^3\).
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, physicists, and students of differential geometry interested in the properties of vector fields and the relationship between closed and exact forms in topology.

Jhenrique
Messages
676
Reaction score
4
Every conservative vector field is irrotational? Every irrotational vector field is conservative?
Every solenoidal vector field is incompressible? Every incompressible vector field is solenoidal?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Please tell us what you think and give your reasoning.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
I think that every exact form is closed, but not all closed form is exact.

However, I see irrotational vector field and conservative vector field be treated of same way and incompressible vector field and selenoidal vector field be treated like if they are the same thing too.

Edit: those are the definitions that I use...
image.png
 
Last edited:
To answer your question, you need to think about de Rham cohomology classes on ##\mathbb{R}^3##.
 
Before you get off into Ben's post (which is the correct answer of course), you should first relate your original statements with the questions "are all closed forms exact? and "are all exact forms closed?".

Your four statements in your original post correspond to four the statements:

Are the following two statements always true?:

$$\nabla\times\nabla f=0$$
$$\nabla\cdot(\nabla\times\vec{f})=0$$

And the statements, if:
$$\nabla\times\vec{f}=0$$

Then is it true that:
$$\vec{f}=\nabla a$$
For some function a?

And if:
$$\nabla\cdot\vec{f}=0$$

Then is it true that:
$$\vec{f}=\nabla\times\vec{a}$$

These 4 statements can be simplified into two statements that I mentioned above (respectively). Why? Because of how the gradient, curl, and divergence can be related to the exterior derivative. Recall the relations:

$$\nabla f=(df)^\sharp$$
$$\nabla\times\vec{f}=[\star(d\vec{f}^\flat)]^\sharp$$
$$\nabla\cdot\vec{f}=\star d(\star\vec{f}^\flat)$$

Then our first two statements are, are the following always true?:
$$\nabla\times\nabla f = [\star(ddf)]^\sharp=0$$
$$\nabla\cdot(\nabla\times\vec{f})=\star d(\star\star d\vec{f}^\flat)=0$$

We can immediately see that these two statements are really the statement "are all exact forms closed?", which is a true statement by construction. The exterior derivative is constructed in such a way that this is true.

The other two statements are a little bit more subtle to prove, they are, in the language of exterior derivatives, the statement "are all closed forms exact?" (You can work this out quite easily yourself given the information provided). It is here that one evokes the de Rham cohomology classes. The Poincare Lemma tells us that all closed forms are locally exact. That is in the neighborhood of each point, one can find a function f such that da=0 implies a=df. In order to make this statement global, one has to care about the global topology of the underlying manifold (which is where de Rham cohomology comes into play). The general result is that globally all closed forms are exact if the manifold is contractable (able to be continuously shrunken to a point) which is true on R^3, but might not be true on say a toroid.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 73 ·
3
Replies
73
Views
8K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
6K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K