Are Metric Space Infimums Equal for Non-Empty Subsets?

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter choccookies
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Metric
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a relationship between the infimum of distances from points in one non-empty subset of a metric space to another non-empty subset. Specifically, the participants explore whether the infimum of distances from subset Q to subset J is equal to the infimum of distances from subset J to subset Q.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the problem of proving that inf{dist(x,J):x is a member of Q} equals inf{dist(Q,y):y is a member of J} and expresses uncertainty about how to approach the proof.
  • Another participant suggests proving that both expressions are equal to inf{d(x,y) | x is a member of J, y is a member of Q} as a potential strategy.
  • A subsequent post reiterates the suggestion to prove the equality using the three axioms of metrics but seeks clarification on how to proceed.
  • One participant proposes a step-by-step breakdown of the infimums, suggesting that inf{dist(x,J): x member of Q} can be expressed in terms of inf{d(x,y)|y member of J} and relates it to the distance between the sets Q and J.
  • Another participant agrees with the proposed approach, indicating that they believe it is correct.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

While there is some agreement on the approach to proving the equality of the infimums, the discussion includes uncertainty about the steps involved and whether the proposed methods are sufficient to establish the proof.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not resolve the mathematical steps necessary to prove the equality, and there are assumptions regarding the properties of the metric that are not explicitly stated.

choccookies
Messages
3
Reaction score
0
HI I've got this question I don't know how to do;

Let X be a metric space, and let Q,J be non-empty subsets of X. prove that

inf{dist(x,J):x is a member of Q}= inf{dist(Q,y):y is a member of J}.


I know that the dist(x,J):= inf{d(x,y)|y is a member of J}, I thought maybe if I tried to show the two infimum weren't equal and prove by contradiction, because if d is a metric then d(x,y)=d(y,x). But I'm not sure how to go about it.
Any help please?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Maybe you can prove that both are equal to [tex]inf\{d(x,y)~\vert~x\in J, y\in Q\}[/tex]...
 
micromass said:
Maybe you can prove that both are equal to [tex]inf\{d(x,y)~\vert~x\in J, y\in Q\}[/tex]...

but how would i do this? using the three axioms of metrics?
 
micromass said:
Maybe you can prove that both are equal to [tex]inf\{d(x,y)~\vert~x\in J, y\in Q\}[/tex]...

could i do this:

inf{dist(x,J): x member of Q}
= inf{inf{d(x,y)|y member of J}:x member of Q}

Since we know inf{d(x,y)|x member of Q, y member of J}= d(Q,J)

Then the above is = inf{d,(Q,J)},

and then the same for the right hand side?
 
Yes, I believe that is correct.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
4K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K