Are non-integer moduli useful in modular arithmetic?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of non-integer moduli in modular arithmetic, exploring whether such moduli can be useful or meaningful. Participants examine the implications of using real numbers, particularly irrational numbers like π, in modular arithmetic and its potential applications in mathematical and physical contexts.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Debate/contested
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the utility of non-integer moduli, suggesting that modular arithmetic is traditionally defined for integers and may not convey meaningful information when applied to real numbers.
  • Another participant proposes a definition for modular arithmetic involving real numbers, indicating that it could be expressed in terms of division with a real modulus.
  • A different viewpoint suggests that while there are ways to apply modular arithmetic with non-integer moduli, the range of values for the equivalence class may not need to be restricted to the modulus itself.
  • Participants discuss the relevance of using 2π as a natural period in trigonometric contexts and mention the relationship between different groups in modular arithmetic, such as ℝ/2πℤ and ℝ/πℤ.
  • Concerns are raised about the implications of using π in relation to physical measurements of circles, with one participant questioning the absurdity of certain results derived from this approach.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the usefulness and implications of non-integer moduli in modular arithmetic. There is no consensus on whether such applications are meaningful or practical, and the discussion remains unresolved.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights potential limitations in defining modular arithmetic with non-integer moduli, including the need for clear definitions and the implications of using irrational numbers in mathematical contexts.

m00npirate
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I've been looking around for this, but I can't find any discussion of non-integer moduli for use in modular arithmetic. Is it not defined simply because it isn't useful? Every source I look at will say "integers a and b are congruent modulo n if blah blah blah." However, it makes just as much sense to say \pi + \sqrt{2} \equiv \sqrt{2} \hspace{7 mm}(mod \pi).

<strike> The reason I'm wondering about this is because every circle would have zero circumference and area (mod \pi) which seemed absurd. Can anyone explain? </strike>Thanks a ton!

EDIT: Just realized I was being silly, as obviously most circles will still be fine .But is there a physical way to interpret this for those circles with 0 circumference but non-zero area etc? Or is modular arithmetic just not useful here?
 
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You say it 'makes as much sense', but does it? What would it mean? Modulo arithmetic is to do with divisibility. You are naturally moving into a field where everything divides everything else (forgetting zero for a second), so it isn't useful: everything would be equivalent to everything else; it isn't telling you anything.
 
It would make sense in the meaning of division if we define it like this (which is obviously the definition the original example implies):

a=\pi \cdot q+b, 0 \leq b &lt; \pi \Rightarrow a \equiv b (mod \pi) where a,b \in \mathbb{R}, q \in \mathbb{Z}
 
Aboslutely right, Jarle: there are ways to make mod work, though there is no reason why b should restricted to be in the range 0 to pi, unless you're making that transitive by fiat.

Normally one sees things "mod 2pi", as that is as natural period occurring when you use trig functions.

Usually, this is formally written in terms of cosets of a subgroup, in this case inside R. The group \mathbb{R}/2\pi\mathbb{Z} is the natural place to do Fourier analysis. Of course it is isomorphic to the groups \mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}, and \mathbb{R}/\pi\mathbb{Z}, which can also be used - then it comes down to personal preference about what constants you want floating around. I remember someone once saying that 2pi is defined to be equal to 1 for the purposes of Fourier series. (Think Planck constant/length/time by analogy I suppose.)

I don't see why just because things differ by a multiple of pi this implies anything about a circle's physical measurements that is 'absurd'.
 
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