Are There Any Primes That Satisfy a^4-b^4=p for Integers a and b?

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding all prime numbers \( p \) such that there exist integers \( a \) and \( b \) satisfying the equation \( a^4 - b^4 = p \). The discussion revolves around the implications of factoring the expression and the conditions under which \( p \) can be prime.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the factorization of the equation and consider cases based on the values of \( a \) and \( b \). Questions arise regarding whether \( a \) and \( b \) must be distinct integers and the validity of certain algebraic manipulations.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants examining different cases and questioning the assumptions made in the original proof attempt. Some participants suggest that the original poster's reasoning may overlook certain solutions, while others provide alternative approaches to the problem.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted typo in the original post that may have affected the interpretation of the problem. Additionally, the discussion includes considerations of whether negative integers should be included in the analysis.

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Homework Statement


Find all primes p such that [tex]\exists a,b \in \mathbf{Z}[/tex] such that [tex]a^4-b^4=p[/tex].


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


For simplicity, we can limit a and b to the positive integers.

Factoring, we have [tex]p=(a^2+b^2)(a-b)(a+b)[/tex]. By the unique factorization theorem, we are limited to three cases:

(1) [tex]a+b=1[/tex] and [tex]a-b=1[/tex], which gives [tex]a=1[/tex] and [tex]b=0[/tex], so p must be 1. But since 1 is not a prime, case 1 is eliminated.

(2) [tex]a^2+b^2=1[/tex] and [tex]a-b=1[/tex], which gives [tex]a^2+b^2-2ab=1[/tex] and then [tex]-2ab=0[/tex]. Again, we are left with [tex]a=1[/tex] and [tex]b=0[/tex], so case 2 is eliminated.

(3) [tex]a^2+b^2=1[/tex] and [tex]a+b=1[/tex], which gives [tex]a^2+b^2+2ab=1[/tex] and then [tex]2ab=0[/tex]. Again, we are left with [tex]a=1[/tex] and [tex]b=0[/tex], so case 3 is eliminated.

Therefore, no primes satisfy the equation. Q.E.D.



Is my proof valid? If it is, is there a "more elegant" proof?


edit: I accidentally put the question as [tex]a^4+b^4=p[/tex] instead of what I currently have up there. >_< Oops!
 
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Do a and b have to be distinct? Because a=1=b gives p=2, which is prime.
 
Hi,
Jeffreydk, if a=1=b then p=0 from the original equation.

foxjwill,
on part 2,
I don't see how your algebra got you [tex]a^2+b^2-2ab=1[/tex]
I agree with your result up to a point, though.
Here's what I did:
[tex]a^2+b^2=1[/tex] and [tex]a-b=1 \Longrightarrow a=b+1[/tex]
then plug that into the first one:
[tex](b+1)^2+b^2=1[/tex]
[tex]b^2+2b+1+b^2=1[/tex]
which eventually gives 2 solutions:
[tex]b=0[/tex] and [tex]b=-1[/tex]
both of which still don't make p prime when you solve for a...you just have to make sure that you cover all possibilities.

I didn't work out the 3rd part, but I bet you get 2 results out of it as well.

CC
 
Last edited:
happyg1 said:
Hi,
Jeffreydk, if a=1=b then p=0 from the original equation.

yes, but he gave this remark before I had corrected my typo. So, when he saw it, a=b=1 did give p=2

happyg1 said:
foxjwill,
on part 2,
I don't see how your algebra got you [tex]a^2+b^2-2ab=1[/tex]
CC

I got that by squaring [tex]a-b=1[/tex]
 
I did not see the edit...sorry.

I took it as a system of equations. Your method is also valid, but not quite complete.
-1 has to be included to be completely rigorous...no matter what, no primes will satisfy the thing :)
CC
 

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