Are van der Waals forces the fundamental basis for the Casimir effect?

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    Casimir effect Forces
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SUMMARY

The Casimir effect is fundamentally linked to quantum electrodynamics (QED) and is a consequence of quantized fields. Van der Waals (vdW) forces, often considered a result of the Casimir effect, are actually derived from long-range electron correlation effects as described by the Schrödinger equation. This relationship highlights a critical issue in density functional theory (DFT), where local correlation functionals fail to accurately reproduce vdW forces. The discussion emphasizes that vdW forces are foundational, with the Casimir effect emerging from them, as supported by research such as the paper referenced from arXiv.

PREREQUISITES
  • Quantum Electrodynamics (QED)
  • Schrödinger Equation
  • Density Functional Theory (DFT)
  • Van der Waals Forces
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of the Casimir effect in quantum field theory.
  • Explore advanced concepts in Density Functional Theory (DFT) related to correlation functionals.
  • Investigate the relationship between van der Waals forces and quantum mechanics.
  • Review the paper referenced from arXiv (1702.03291) for deeper insights into the foundational aspects of vdW forces.
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Physicists, quantum chemists, and researchers focused on quantum mechanics, particularly those interested in the interactions between quantum fields and molecular forces.

alxm
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As I understand it, the Casimir effect is due to the quantized field, and can only be described with QED.
Also, van der Waals forces are supposedly a result of the Casimir effect.

Here's what I don't understand. Supposedly, an accurate solution to the Schrödinger equation - without a quantized field, but rather with instantaneous coulomb forces, does give vdW forces as a long-range electron correlation effect. (This is a important problem in DFT, where most correlation functionals are local and do not reproduce vdW effects)

Would someone more versed in QED care to reconcile this for me?
My working assumption is that that vdW forces are reproduced, but only approximately, with 'c=infinity' then. In which case I'm wondering: How good is that approximation?
 
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alxm said:
Also, van der Waals forces are supposedly a result of the Casimir effect.
It's the other way around, van der Waals forces are fundamental and Casimir effect results from them. See e.g. https://arxiv.org/abs/1702.03291
 

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