Area between two curves (x = cos(y) and y = cos (x))

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the area between the curves defined by the equations x = cos(y) and y = cos(x). The area is determined using integrals, specifically A1 = ∫cos(x) dx from 0 to Xi and A2 = ∫cos(y) dy from 0 to Yi, with the total area calculated as A = A1 + A2 - A3. The value of Xi, where cos(Xi) = Xi, is approximated to be around 0.7390851332, known as the Dottie number, and the area can only be solved numerically due to its irrational nature.

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Homework Statement
Give the area marked in the graph (graph as jpg file)
Relevant Equations
x = cos y
y = cos x
x E [0,1] and y E [0,1]
I tried this:
X = cos(y) → y = arccos(x) for x E(-1,1) and y E (0,2)
Then:
There's a point I(Xi,Yi) in which:
Cos(Xi) =Arccos(Xi)
Then I said area1 (file: A1)
A1 = ∫cosx dx definite in 0, Xi
And A2 (file:A2):
A2 = ∫cosy dy definite in 0, Yi
And the overlapping area as A3 (file: A3):
A3 = ∫Yi dx definite in 0, Xi

And total area, then, is:
A = A1 + A2 - A3

I had trouble finding the value of Xi though. The best Approach I could find is 3/4, but I had not found a method further narrow the aprroach answer. I think Xi is an irrational number, I'd want to know if it has a name and definition to it like Pi or Euler's Number to find it.
I'd want to know if there's another method to calculating this area also.
 

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  • A1.jpg
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  • A2.jpg
    A2.jpg
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  • A3.jpg
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By symmetry, the area you want is <br /> 2 \int_0^{X} \cos x - x \,dx where X = \cos X. Unfortunately that can only be solved numerically.
 
pasmith said:
By symmetry, the area you want is <br /> 2 \int_0^{X} \cos x - x \,dx where X = \cos X. Unfortunately that can only be solved numerically.
Thank you very much, but isn't it?
\int_0^{X} \ 2cos x - X \,dx
where X = \cos X.
To discount the overlapping area?
And could you explain me what is "numerically'?
(The int should be the integral symbol. Really don't know how to use it)
 
Last edited by a moderator:
No. There is no overlapping area if your first .jpg is the correct area. The integral$$
A = 2\int_0^p \cos x - x~dx$$is correct (here ##p## is the value where ##\cos p = p##). What he means by having to do it numerically is the fact that even though you can integrate to get $$A =2\sin(p) - p^2$$you still have to find ##p## numerically. (About 0.7390851332).
 
igorrn said:
Thank you very much, but isn't it?
int_0^{X} \ 2cos x - X \,dx
where X = \cos X.
To discount the overlapping area?
Note that ##X \ne x##. Either method will get you the same answer.
 
igorrn said:
(The int should be the integral symbol. Really don't know how to use it)
It's this: \int
As a definite integral, \int_{a}^{b}. Note that you don't need the braces for a limit of integration that is one character, but you do need them for two or more characters. I.e., \int_0^{2 \pi}
 

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