A Asymptotic Flatness: Minkowski Spacetime & Galaxy Scale

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The discussion centers on the assumption that Minkowski spacetime is at infinity when deriving the standard form of a spherically symmetric metric. This assumption is crucial because it allows for the gravitational effects of distant masses, like stars, to become negligible, preventing significant influence on nearby bodies such as Earth. Participants question whether this assumption could be violated, particularly on a galactic scale, and explore the implications of asymptotic flatness in relation to gravitational influence. However, the consensus emphasizes that these speculations are outside the bounds of established physics, urging a focus on existing models in astronomy and cosmology. The thread concludes with a reminder to adhere to scientifically grounded discussions rather than personal speculations.
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In derivation of the standard form of a spherical symmetric metric, always the assumption is made: minkowski spacetime is in the infinity. Why is this done?
In derivation of the standard form of a spherical symmetric metric, always the assumption is made: minkowski spacetime is in the infinity. Why is this done? Could it be violated/not true? For example on the galaxy scale?
 
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Angelika10 said:
Summary:: In derivation of the standard form of a spherical symmetric metric, always the assumption is made: minkowski spacetime is in the infinity. Why is this done?

In derivation of the standard form of a spherical symmetric metric, always the assumption is made: minkowski spacetime is in the infinity. Why is this done? Could it be violated/not true? For example on the galaxy scale?
It's a question of physical viability. What you're asking is why the gravitational effect of the Sun, for example, reduces with distance and eventually becomes negligible?

If it didn't, then the Earth would be significantly affected by the gravity of every star in the galaxy; plus every star in Andromeda.

There's no evidence for this. All the evidence points at the Sun having the only really significant effect.

In terms of asymptotic behaviour, the absolute mass is irrelevant.
 
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PeroK said:
What you're asking is why the gravitational effect of the Sun, for example, reduces with distance and eventually becomes negligible?
That is not entirely true. Even in the case of a spherically symmetric mass distribution in Newtonian gravity - you still have the option of an external field with zero divergence. This field is generally not considered to be part of the effect ”from the Sun”, but it does affect the boundary conditions.

The general idea however is that you want spacetime to be essentially Minkowski space far away from any sources or singularities.
 
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PeroK said:
It's a question of physical viability. What you're asking is why the gravitational effect of the Sun, for example, reduces with distance and eventually becomes negligible?
I fully agree for the asymptotical flatness of the solar system. It's measured with high precision.
But why do we assume the galaxy asymptotically flat?

PeroK said:
If it didn't, then the Earth would be significantly affected by the gravity of every star in the galaxy; plus every star in Andromeda.
Because flatness means "no influence of gravity" if we assume that gravity is the same as curvature of spacetime. I understand that.

But, in analogy to electrodynamics: There is "no field" the asymptotic, not "flat field", as in general relativity. Why can't we assume this? Something like "vanishing spacetime" in the infinity?
 
Orodruin said:
The general idea however is that you want spacetime to be essentially Minkowski space far away from any sources or singularities.
Yes, I see. But how do we know that it doesn't become "the opposite of minkowski" as it approaches infinity?

While deriving a metric from the standard form

##ds^2 = B(r)c^2dt^2 - A(r)dr^2 -r^2(d\theta^2 + sin^2\theta d\phi^2)##

It's always assumed that B(r) and A(r) approach to 1. I know that it's highly speculative, but could they divert from 1 in the infinity (B approching \infty, A approaching 0)?
 
Angelika10 said:
Why can't we assume this? Something like "vanishing spacetime" in the infinity?
This makes no sense.

Angelika10 said:
I know that it's highly speculative
Yes, which means it's out of bounds for PF discussion, since we do not allow discussion of personal speculations. Instead of spending time speculating, you should be spending your time learning how the models used in astronomy and cosmology actually work and why they make the assumptions they do.

Thread closed.
 
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Moderator's note: Spin-off from another thread due to topic change. In the second link referenced, there is a claim about a physical interpretation of frame field. Consider a family of observers whose worldlines fill a region of spacetime. Each of them carries a clock and a set of mutually orthogonal rulers. Each observer points in the (timelike) direction defined by its worldline's tangent at any given event along it. What about the rulers each of them carries ? My interpretation: each...

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