Asymptotically unbiased & consistent estimators

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the proof of a theorem related to asymptotically unbiased and consistent estimators in statistics. Participants are exploring the implications of replacing "unbiased" with "asymptotically unbiased" in the context of the theorem, particularly focusing on the conditions under which consistency can be established.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant states a theorem regarding unbiased estimators and their consistency, expressing difficulty in proving the theorem when substituting "unbiased" with "asymptotically unbiased."
  • Another participant suggests an adjustment involving the application of Chebyshev's inequality to demonstrate the relationship between variance and consistency.
  • A subsequent reply questions the validity of the assumptions required for Chebyshev's inequality, specifically regarding the condition that ε - E(θ̂n) - θ0 > 0.
  • In response, a participant argues that while the condition may not hold universally, it does hold for sufficiently large n, as E(θ̂n) converges to θ0.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the applicability of Chebyshev's inequality in this context, and there is no consensus on how to prove the theorem with the asymptotic condition. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the proof and the assumptions involved.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the dependence on the assumptions of Chebyshev's inequality and the conditions under which asymptotic unbiasedness is considered. The discussion does not resolve these limitations.

kingwinner
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Theorem: If "θ hat" is an unbiased estimator for θ AND Var(θ hat)->0 as n->∞, then it is a consistent estimator of θ.

The textbook proved this theorem using Chebyshev's Inequality and Squeeze Theorem and I understand the proof.
BUT then there is a remark that we can replace "unbiased" by "asymptotically unbiased" in the above theorem, and the result will still hold, but the textbook provided no proof. This is where I'm having a lot of trouble. I really don't see how we can prove this (i.e. asymptotically unbiased and variance->0 implies consistent). I tried to modify the original proof, but no way I can get it to work under the assumption of asymptotically unbiased.

I'm frustrated and I hope someone can explain how to prove it. Thank you!
 
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Hi kingwinner! :smile:

What about the following adjustment:

P(|\hat{\theta}_n-\theta_0|\geq \varepsilon)\leq P(|\hat{\theta}_n-E(\hat{\theta}_n)|+|E(\hat{\theta}_n)-\theta_0|\geq \varepsilon)\leq \frac{Var(\hat{\theta}_n)}{(\varepsilon-|E(\hat{\theta}_n)-\theta_0|)^2}\rightarrow 0
 
micromass said:
Hi kingwinner! :smile:

What about the following adjustment:

P(|\hat{\theta}_n-\theta_0|\geq \varepsilon)\leq P(|\hat{\theta}_n-E(\hat{\theta}_n)|+|E(\hat{\theta}_n)-\theta_0|\geq \varepsilon)\leq \frac{Var(\hat{\theta}_n)}{(\varepsilon-|E(\hat{\theta}_n)-\theta_0|)^2}\rightarrow 0

Thanks for the help, but one of the assumptions of Chebyshev's inequality requires \varepsilon-|E(\hat{\theta}_n)-\theta_0|>0 which is not necessarily true here?
 
kingwinner said:
Thanks for the help, but one of the assumptions of Chebyshev's inequality requires \varepsilon-|E(\hat{\theta}_n)-\theta_0|>0 which is not necessarily true here?

It's not necessarily true, but it is true for large n. We know that

E(\hat{\theta}_n)\rightarrow \theta_0

So from a certain n0, we know that

|E(\hat{\theta}_n)-\theta_0|<\varepsilon

So from that certain n0, we know that

\varepsilon-|E(\hat{\theta}_n)-\theta_0|>0
 
Thanks for the help! :) You're a legend...
 

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