Hootenanny
Staff Emeritus
Science Advisor
Gold Member
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That's what I thought Byrgg was saying in his post. I wanted to make sure, before I launched into an explanation.HallsofIvy said:Who were you responding to? I surely wouldn't say that- I would maintain that the function f(y)= by is only defined for positive and therefore, x= by must be positive.
For b positive, the function f(x)= bx has domain all real numbers and range all positive real numbers and so logb(x) has domain all positive real numbers and range all real numbers.
Byrgg, your explanation there is correct. However, I would state as Halls of Ivy and many others have that the two functions are defined as inverses.