Quotient of l_1(I) by c_0(I) and tensor products

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olliemath
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I'm currently studying Intro to Tensor Products of Banach Spaces by Ryan. In it he makes the off-hand remark

We recall that every Banach space is a quotient of [tex]l_1(I)[/tex] for some suitably chosen indexing set I.

Is it? Does anyone know what this result is called, or where I can find a proof of it?
Cheers in advance - O
 
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The fact that a separable Banach space is a quotient of [tex]\ell_1(\mathbb{N})[/tex] is pretty well-known, and a proof can be found for example on pages 103-104 of
Morrison, Functional Analysis: An Introduction to Banach Space Theory. Wiley-Interscience, 2000.

I just scanned the proof and I think you can easily modify it to get the result you want. Or you can try Lindenstrauss-Tzafriri, Dunford-Schwarz or Megginson to see if they have a proof of the general result.