Basic Kinetics Question: Calculate Velocity on a Circular Path - Homework Help

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The discussion revolves around calculating the velocity of a rider at the bottom of a circular path after descending from a height. The rider's initial speed is 27 km/h, and the height is 14m, with a total weight of 650 N. The key approach involves using energy conservation principles, where potential energy at the top is converted to kinetic energy at the bottom. Participants clarify that mass can be divided out in the energy equation since it remains constant, and they discuss the implications of treating the rider as a point mass. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding the relationship between mass, energy, and motion in this context.
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Homework Statement



http://img39.imageshack.us/img39/3778/funkyrider.jpg

So I got this funky rider that starts its movement from the top of the hill A at initial speed (Vo). From that point, the bicycles role on freely (without using pedals) at the circular path.

Calculate the velocity of the rider at the bottom point B.

W= (weight of the rider+bicycle) = 650 [N]
Vo (initial velocity) = 27 km/h
H = 14m
R= 10m

Comment: Ignore friction
C is point mass


The Attempt at a Solution



HERE is my problem. Last year in my notebook I wrote this:

http://img204.imageshack.us/img204/6220/vfold.jpg

I tried resolving it but I didn't get the same result. This result is the same one in the manual so I reckon it's correct.

I tried

a = -9.81
a = 9.81
a = v2/R = 7.52/10
a = g2/R = 9.812/2

Nothing works. The third one makes slight sense to me because according to the formula of circular motion that's what "a" ought to be, v2/R...problem is that using this I'm not considering "g" and that's impossible, therefor the last a makes most sense to me. None of them gives me my old answer!
 
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The equation in your old book is incorrect(the answer is right, somehow :rolleyes:). You seem to have interchanged the addition and multiplication signs :-p

From energy conservation it comes out to be,

mgh + \frac{1}{2}mv_i^2 = \frac{1}{2}mv_f^2

cutting out m, you get...

\frac{1}{2}v_f^2 = \frac{1}{2}v_i^2 + gh

And of course, g is...?
 
Hmm, how can you just cut out m? dividing everything by m?

I'm a bit confused as to why we shouldn't take m into consideration...but maybe it's only for the first clause, since after all it's being defined to us as point mass...

which is another confusing factor. If the thing is "point mass"-- it shouldn't really have any weight
 
Yes, I divided everything by m. It's non zero, thus legal to divide.

Mass is taken into consideration for the energy equation, but luckily, it gets divided out. If, somehow, there were some mass joining the original body at an intermediate stage of motion(not effecting the other values), then the final mass would be changed, and you couldn't just 'divide mass out' then.

If the thing is "point mass"-- it shouldn't really have any weight

A 'point mass' means it has mass(and may have weight) but its dimensions are infinitely small.
 
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True, m isn't changed through. Thanks, I'll keep it all in check. Much appreciated Infinitum :)
 
Glad to help! :smile:
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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