Bell's theorem: Local realism v. counterfactual determinism

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SUMMARY

This discussion centers on Bell's theorem and its implications for local realism and counterfactual determinism. It asserts that if Bell's theorem is valid, then either local realism or counterfactual determinism must be violated, particularly in the context of quantum entanglement. The conversation explores whether a theory can exist that is both local and consistent with Bell's inequality and quantum mechanics predictions, highlighting interpretations like the Copenhagen interpretation and QBism that maintain locality by relinquishing the idea of definite outcomes for quantum observables. Additionally, it addresses the challenge of explaining how locality can be broken without allowing non-local signaling.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Bell's theorem and its implications in quantum mechanics.
  • Familiarity with quantum entanglement and its role in non-locality.
  • Knowledge of interpretations of quantum mechanics, specifically the Copenhagen interpretation and QBism.
  • Basic grasp of counterfactual determinism and its relevance to quantum theory.
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  • Research the implications of Bell's theorem on local realism and non-locality.
  • Explore the Copenhagen interpretation and its stance on quantum observables.
  • Investigate QBism and its approach to maintaining locality in quantum mechanics.
  • Examine Bohmian Mechanics and its non-local characteristics in relation to experimental precision.
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Physicists, philosophers of science, and students of quantum mechanics seeking to understand the foundational implications of Bell's theorem on locality and realism in quantum theory.

zvi
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This is kind of an offshoot from:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=369328

Assume for a second that the controversial experiments are valid and Bell's theorem is true of the universe.
I have often seen the philosophical analysis that if Bell's Theorem is true then either local realism OR counterfactual determinism must be violated.
E.g. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Counterfactual_definiteness

But all the interpretations of quantum mechanics I know do involve some breech of locality - namely there is entanglement.

So (1) can we say that Bell's Theorem proves that the world is not local (i.e. that there is entanglement) and if not what is the counter example of a theory which is totally local and yet is consistent with Bell's inequality and with the predictions of QM?

(2) if locality is indeed violated does anyone know of a really clear lay explanation for how locality can be broken but in such a way that it does not allow non-local signalling.

Hope my question is clear!

ThanksPS I just saw an older related thread
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=361173

However I don't see a conclusion there. Does there/can there exist a theory compatible with the predictions of QM which is abandons realism but is completely local (no entanglement). I have not seen such a theory. And if not can we not say that Bell=>nonlocality? Thanks.
 
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zvi said:
So (1) can we say that Bell's Theorem proves that the world is not local (i.e. that there is entanglement) and if not what is the counter example of a theory which is totally local and yet is consistent with Bell's inequality and with the predictions of QM?
Copenhagen and other non-representational views like QBism. They retain locality by giving up the idea that values of Quantum Observables are outcomes on a single sample space.

zvi said:
(2) if locality is indeed violated does anyone know of a really clear lay explanation for how locality can be broken but in such a way that it does not allow non-local signalling.
Typically our ignorance of the precise conditions of the particle masks any possible signalling. I have heard that the non-local nature of Bohmian Mechanics actually produces the limit of experimental precision needed for this masking. @Demystifier can undoubtedly say more.
 
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DarMM said:
Copenhagen and other non-representational views like QBism. They retain locality by giving up the idea that values of Quantum Observables are outcomes on a single sample space.
This is equivalent to abandoning one of the Bell inequality hypothesis, i.e., "Measurement independence"
$$p(\lambda|a,b)=p(\lambda)$$
Copenhagen does not necessarily mean that we have to abandon this "no conspiracy" assumption.
 

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