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Usually its said that the violation of Bell's inequality means that any theory that contains the assumptions of locality and realism doesn't agree with QM and observations. But sometimes I hear people talk about counter-factual definiteness instead of realism(or maybe the presence of both!) as the underlying assumption of Bell's inequality. But I really have problem understanding the difference between realism and counter-factual definiteness, actually it seems to me that they're the same and we only have local realism that is rejected by the violation of Bell's inequality.
I'll appreciate any discussion on these issues.
Thanks
I'll appreciate any discussion on these issues.
Thanks