- #1
TheCanadian
- 367
- 13
In the following wiki article for Beltrami flows, it is stated that the nonlinear terms are identically zero. I can easily prove the terms are equivalent and thus cancel one another, to yield the linear equation. But after a bit of algebra, I don't see why the terms are zero themselves? Why would a vorticity vector being parallel with velocity result in the parallel gradients going to 0?